Bạn đã chuẩn bị đầy đủ tài liệu cho kỳ thi TN THPT QG & ĐHCĐ sắp tới chưa? Chúng tôi sẽ giúp bạn có đủ một bộ sưu tập Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh được tuyển chọn từ các trường có tiếng trong cả nước. Chúng tôi hi vọng, bộ đề thi thử này sẽ giúp cho việc ôn tập của bạn tốt hơn.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. transfer B. career C. variety D. afraid

Question 2. A. surfaces B. temples C. exercises D. pages

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. powerful B. remember C. obvious D. primary

Question 4. A. sacrifice B. impossible C. confident D. interview

Question 5. A. vacant B. factor C. college D. device

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6. These machines are older models and have to be operated by hand.

A. manually B. spiritually C. automatically D. mechanically

Question 7. In the 1980s, TV viewers began to hook up videocassette players to their TVs.

A. combine B. stop C. fasten D. connect

Question 8. Thanks to better health care, there are more and more centenarians nowadays.

A. children who die at birth A. children whose parents can’t afford their schooling

C. people who live 100 years or more D. people who suffer from fatal diseases

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9. One of the reasons why families break up is that parents are always critical of each other.

A. unaware B. supportive C. intolerant D. tired

Question 10. It’s discourteous to ask Americans questions about their age, marriage or income.

A. impolite B. polite C. unacceptable D. rude

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 11. In the future, we will certainly lead a more healthier life.

A. In B. will C. more D. certainly

Question 12. In the end of the story, Cinderella and the prince get married and live happily together.

A. the prince B. In the end C. get married D. happily

Question 13. Rattan, a close relative of bamboo, is often used to make tables, chairs, and other furnitures.

A. furnitures B. a close C. is often D. to make

Question 14. Either Mr. Anderson or Ms. Wiggins are going to teach our class today.

A. or B. are C. Either D. today

Question 15. I prefer living in a nuclear family than a joint one.

A. a nuclear family B. one C. than D. living

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 16. Choose the best arrangement of the sentences marked i, ii, iii, iv to make a short dialogue.

i. I’m afraid I need it today. How about the weekend?

ii. I’m not sure. The brakes aren’t working very well.

iii. I see. We can probably repair that easily. Can you leave the car now?

iv. Good morning, Madam. What’s the problem?

A. i-ii-iii-iv B. i-iv-ii-iii C. iv-ii-iii-i D. iv-iii-ii-i

Question 17. We all believe that a happy marriage should be__________ mutual love.

A. based on B. concerned with C. confided in D. obliged to

Question 18. – Janet: “What a lovely house you have!” – Jane: “_______________”

A. No problem. B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.

C. Of course not, it’s not costly. D. I think so.

Question 19. __________ I get your letter, I will reply to you at once.

A. By the time B. As though C. As soon as D. Now that

Question 20. __________ not to come late, the applicant set out for his job interview.

A. He was advised B. People advised him C. Advised D. Advising

Question 21. __________ the film director, Ben Affleck, was famously left off of the 85^th Oscar’s Best Director list of nominees surprised everyone.

A. Although B. What C. Due to D. That

Question 22. According to_______ people, most animal and plant species on earth will soon die out.

A. optimists B. pessimistic C. pessimists D. optimistic

Question 23. My mother asked me__________.

A. which tertiary institution did I choose B. which tertiary institution I choose

C. which tertiary institution I would choose D. which tertiary institution will I choose

Question 24. – Mubarak: ”Did you enjoy the movie yesterday?” – Mark: “_______________ “

A. Certainly, I’d be glad to. B. Yes, it is warmer than today.

C. Not really. I couldn’t follow the story. D. No, I dislike moving.

Question 25. Her boss fired her, __________ made her angry.

A. that B. this C. what D. which

Question 26. You__________ the washing. My sister could have done it for you.

A. needn’t have done B. couldn’t have done C. hadn’t to do D. mustn’t have done

Question 27. These school-leavers are looking forward__________ on campus.

A. living B. to live C. live D. to living

Question 28. According to_______ people, most animal and plant species on earth will soon die out.

A. optimists B. pessimistic C. pessimists D. optimistic

Question 29. Is it necessary that I__________ here tomorrow?

A. would be B. am being C. were D. be

Question 30. We received a call from the teacher__________ charge of our course.

A. on B. at C. in D. to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they need for such everyday (31)__________ as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also gives them the specialized training they may need to (32)__________ for a job or career. For example, a person must meet certain educational requirements and obtain a (33)__________ or certificate before he can practice law or medicine. Many fields, like computer operation or police work, (34)__________ satisfactory completion of special training courses.

Education is also important (35)__________ it helps people get more out of life. It increases their knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and enjoyable, (36)__________ the skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical (37)__________. Such education becomes (38)__________ important as people gain more and more leisure time.

Education also helps people adjust to change. This habit has become necessary because social changes today take place with increasing speed and (39)__________ the lives of more and more people. Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him (40)__________ the skills for adjusting to them.

Question 31. A. works	B. jobs	C. actions	D. activities
Question 32. A. do	B. prepare	C. make	D. work
Question 33. A. license	B. card	C. diploma	D. paper
Question 34. A. requires	B. requiring	C. require	D. to require
Question 35. A. therefore	B. despite	C. although	D. because
Question 36. A. such as	B. for instance	C. such that	D. for example
Question 37. A. appliance	B. equipment	C. instrument	D. device
Question 38. A. increased	B. increasing	C. increase	D. increasingly
Question 39. A. effect	B. affect	C. affective	D. effective
Question 40. A. with	B. for	C. in	D. to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, which provides information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential campaigns knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.

North Americans are familiar with the many “person on the street” interviews on local television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which area the new people select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.

Question 41. The main purpose of the passage is to__________.

A. define what a survey is B. decide what a survey is

C. explain the kinds of opinion D. reflect a broad range of the population

Question 42. According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is that they__________.

A. are not based on a representative sampling B. reflect political opinions

C. are not carefully worded D. are used only on television

Question 43. According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live interviews__________.

A. minimize the influence of the researcher B. are easier to interpret

C. costless D. can produce more information

Question 44. The word “precise” is closest in meaning to__________.

A. accurate B. rational C. required D. planned

Question 45. The word “they” refers to___________.

A. interviews B. opinions C. news shows D. North Americans

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh CÓ ĐÁP ÁN – Số 5

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án đi kèm là tài liệu ôn tập giúp các bạn học sinh đang chuẩn bị bước vào kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2017 thực hành kỹ năng giải đề thi và tích lũy kinh nghiệm làm bài từ đó có được kết quả cao nhất tại kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2017.

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường Đại học Ngoại Thương, Hà Nội

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh – Đề 1

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh CÓ ĐÁP ÁN – Số 1

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh

Đề 1

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently form that of the rest.

1. A. advises B. raises C. devises D. goes

2. A. rose B. lose C. close D. chose

Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has different stress from that of the rest.

3. A. express B. effort C. office D. comment

4. A. economic B. experience C. entertainment D. introduction

5. A. history B. depression C. invention D. completely

Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.

6. He has just come back from London, ________is the capital of England.

A. that B. which C. where D. in which

7. No one can predict the future exactly. Things may happen _______.

A. expected B. unexpected C. expectedly D. unexpectedly

8. Ms Young, to _______ many of her students are writing, is living happily and peacefully in Canada.

A. who B. whom C. that D. whose

9. After a few decades of the economic reforms, Vietnam has increased the living _______ of people.

A. surfaces B. standards C. levels D. backgrounds

10. In five more minutes, they_______for three hours on the phone.

A. are talking B. have talked C. will have been talking D. will talk

11. Nam: What do you think about his story? – Tan: ____________, it’s not true.

A. In my opinion B. I think C. According to me D. I don’t think

12. If she _______ the train last night, she _________ here now.

A. took/ were B. were taking/ is

C. had taken/ would have been D. had taken/ would be

13. _______ speaking, I do not really like my present job.

A. Honest B. Honestly C. Honesty D. Dishonest

14. A letter of _______ is sometimes really necessary for you in a job interview.

A. recommend B. recommended C. recommender D. recommendation

15. _______ if he comes late?

A. What you would do B. What would you do C. What will you do D. What you will do

16. Some days of rest may help to _______ the pressure of work.

A. reduce B. lower C. chop D. increase

17. A _______ is an official document that you receive when you have completed a course of study or training.

A. vocation B. subject C. certificate D. grade

18. John: What a nice watch you are wearing, Mary! – Mary: ___________________.

A. Thank you. I hope you like it. B. I don’t think it’s nice

C. No, I don’t think so D. Oh, that’s right

19. He is very worried _______ his new job because he is not quite prepared _______ working.

A. on/ over B. to/ off C. about/ for D. in/ at

20. Mai: Can you lend me some money, Lan? – Lan: __________________.

A. I don’t have any money B. Certainly. Here you are.

C. No, I can’t D. Yes, I can

21. If I _______ 10 years younger, I _______ the job.

A. am/ will take B. was/ have taken

C. had been/ will have taken D. were/ would take

22. When I _______ up this morning, my roommate _______ already.

A. am waking/ leaves B. wake/ has left C. woke/ had left D. was waking/ left

23. I think we ___________ from her soon.

A. hear B. will hear C. have heard D. will have heard

24. Robert wanted to know if I would leave the _______ Friday.

A. following B. ago C. previous D. before

25. He is the man _______ car was stolen last week.

A. whom B. that C. which D. whose

26. It is of great ______ to show your interest and politeness when you are having a job interview.

A. importance B. important C. importantly D. unimportant

27. _____ instructed me how to make a good preparation for a job interview.

A. John Robbins to that I spoke by telephone B. John Robbins, that I spoke to by telephone

C. John Robbins, to who I spoke by telephone D. John Robbins, whom I spoke to by telephone

28. She is the eldest in her house, so she has to look _________her brother when her parents go out.

A. for B. at C. up D. after

29. A taxi crashed into __________ tree. _________driver was badly injured.

A. a/ a B. a/ the C. the/ a D. the/ the

30. The economic renovation in Vietnam _______in December, 1986 by the Vietnamese Communist Party.

A. initiated B. was initiating C. was initiated D. had initiated

Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each of the following questions:

31. “What did you do last weekend, Tim?” Alice asked.

A. Alice asked Tim what did he do last weekend.

B. Alice asked Tim what he had done last weekend.

C. Alice asked Tim what he had done the previous weekend.

D. Alice asked Tim what had he done the previous weekend.

32. People say that Vietnamese students are not well-prepared for their future jobs.

A. Vietnamese students are said not to be well-prepared for their future jobs.

B. Vietnamese students are said to be not well-prepared for their future jobs.

C. Vietnamese students say not to be well-prepared for their future jobs.

D. Vietnamese students say to be not well-prepared for their future jobs.

33. “Why don’t you ask the teacher for help?” Peter asked me.

A. Peter advised me to ask the teacher for help.

B. Peter recommended me not to ask the teacher for help.

C. Peter told me the reason why I did not ask the teacher for help.

D. Peter suggested that he should ask the teacher for help.

34. If it does not rain tomorrow, we will water the garden.

A. Unless it rain tomorrow, we will water the garden.

B. Unless it does rain tomorrow, we will water the garden.

C. Unless it rains tomorrow, we will water the garden.

D. Unless it rains tomorrow, we will not water the garden.

35. Because he came to class late, the teacher punished him.

A. The teacher punished him if he came to class late.

B. The teacher would punish him if he came to class late

C. The teacher would not punish him if he did not come to class late.

D. The teacher would not have punished him if he had not come to class late.

36. Qualifications and experience/ two elements/ help us/ get good jobs easily.

A. Qualifications and experience are two elements help us get good jobs easily.

B. Qualifications and experience are two elements helping us get good jobs easily.

C. Qualifications and experience are two elements which helps us get good jobs easily.

D. Qualifications and experience are two elements helped us get good jobs easily.

Choose the word or phrase that best fits each space in the following passage

Many people love boats. Going out on the water (41) _______ a warm summer day is a lot of fun. (42) _______ ,different people like different kinds of boats. Two of the most popular kinds of boat are sailboats and speedboats. Sailboats use the (43) _______to give them power. They only have small engines. In contrast, speedboats have large engines and go very fast. Furthermore, speedboats are usually not as (44) _______ as sailboats. Speedboats are small so that they can go fast. Sailboats, on the other hand, are big so that they are more comfortable. ( 45) _______, sailboats can travel into the ocean, but this would be very dangerous in a speedboat. You can only use speedboats on rivers or lakes.

41. A. at B. on C. in D. while

42. A. However B. Although C. Because D. Unless

43. A. water B. speed C. weather D. wind

44. A. small B. fast C. warm D. big

45. B. Unfortunately B. At first C. In addition D. Except for

Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D

Diwali is a main Hindu festival. It is known as the “Festival of Lights”. It makes the victory of good over evil. In other words, lights are symbols of victory of brightness over darkness. People in India turn on lamps in every house and watch firecrackers in the night sky. These lights are a way showing honor to the gods of India for giving the people health, knowledge, riches and peace.

On the day of Diwali, children get up at 3:00 a. m and take a bath. They dress up in festival clothes, light up the candles and share sweets. There is competition among the children to light the first firecracker and to make the loudest noise. Soon, the whole sky is bright. Children seem to have the most fun during this festival.

46. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Unity among the people in India

B. A way that children in India have fun

C. How a festival in India is celebrated

D. The meaning of lamplighting and firecrackers in India.

47. The world honor in the first paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to

A. pride B. respect C. satisfaction D. understanding

48. All of the following are true of the festival EXCEPT_______.

A. giving thanks to Gods

B. lighting up candles

C. exploding firecrackers

D. having sports competition between children

49. The author’s main purpose in paragraph 1 is

A. to show different types of lights in Diwali

B. to point out that the Diwali is an unusual holiday

C. to explain the meaning of Diwali

D. to give evidence that Diwali is celebrated at night

50. Why does the author mention children in paragraph 2?

A. To focus that Diwali is a noisy festival

B. To indicate that children enjoy the holiday of Diwali a lot

C. To explain that the Diwali is a time for competition

D. To indicate that the holiday is dangerous for children

——THE END——

Đề 2

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.

1. A. nursery B. work C. excursion D. certificate

2. A. application B. apply C. applicant D. applicator

Choose the word that has the main stress position differently from that of the rest.

3. A. campus B. certificate C. performance D. acceptance

4. A. impression B. existence C. compulsory D. creativity

5. A. reform B. improve C. dominate D. adopt

Choose the correct answer to each of the flollowing questions.

6. He warned her__________the wire.

A. not touching B. not touch C. touch D. not to touch

7. Hurry up! It’s time we__________for next week’s examination.

A. have studied B. studied C. had studied D. will study

8. When Jack __________me, I__________a letter.

A. phoned/ has been writing B. has phoned/ was writing

C. phoned/ was writing D. was phoning/ wrote

9. Be quiet! The baby__________.

A. is sleeping B. slept C. was sleeping D. sleeps

10. You should find out as much as about the job and the vacancy

A. jobs are advertised B. a job that is available.

C. a seat that is available D. an empty seat.

11. Would you mind show me __________to work the lift?

A. where B. how C. what D. why

12. The academic year in England __________into three terms.

A. has divided B. is divided C. divides D. is dividing

13. My mother tells me that she__________since she was four.

A. has been singing B. has been sung C. sang D. had sung

14. We saw many soldiers and horses __________were moving to the front line.

A. which B. whom C. who D. that

15. Try these cakes! They are __________from wheat flour.

A. done B. made C. taken D. baked

16. A surprise party __________by my students tomorrow.

A. is going to be organized B. is gone to organize

C. is going to organize D. a and b are correct

17. Schooling is__________for all English children from the age of five to sixteen.

A. compulsory B. advised C. selected D. encouraged

18. Because of the coming examination, I am under a lot of study__________.

A. responsibility B. pressure C. confidence D. activities

19. Had I known she was sick, I __________her.

A. visited B. had visited C. would have visited D. would visit

20. “__________” the doctor advised his patient.

A. You had better stop drinking B. I would like you to drink

C. You had better to drink D. Please drink some more

21. “I will do it for you, Mary”, Peter said.

A. Peter advised Mary to do it B. Peter advised Mary not to do it.

C. Peter promised to do it for Mary D. Peter wanted Mary to do it.

22. Some snakes are poisonous,__________others are harmless.

A. but B. so C. for D. although

23. Please don’t enter __________knocking.

A. with B. without C. except for D. by

24. “Thanks for your help!” “________________”

A. With all my heart B. Never mind me C. It’s my pleasure D. All it is for you

25. ” How do you get to work?” “_________________”

A. It is very far B. About two kilometers.

C. I walk, of course D. I was taken there.

26. “I have just passed my English proficiency test.” “____________”

A. Congratulations! B. It’s nice of you to say so!

C. That’s a good idea! D. Ok! I’m enjoying in it!

27. “Happy New Year!” “______________”

A. Thank you, I am very happy to hear that.

B. Thank you, I am too.

C. Thank you, the same to you.

D. Thank you. I wish you a happy birthday.

28. “I am expecting a baby.” ” _______________”

A. Good luck! Boy or girl?

B. Happy to hear that.

C. When will you give birth to a baby?

D. That’s wonderful news! When’s it due?

Choose the sentence that is closest in the meaning to the root one.

29. I can’t do the test because it is too difficult.

A. If the test weren’t too difficult, I can do it.

B. If the test hadn’t been too difficult, I could do it.

C. If the test weren’t too difficult, I could do it.

D. If the test isn’t too difficult, I can do it.

30. They are cleaning the kitchen now.

A. The kitchen is now cleaned.

B. The kitchen is cleaning now.

C. The kitchen is been cleaning now.

D. The kitchen is being cleaned now.

31. Opinion/ his performance/ good.

A. My opinion was good at his pereformance.

B. For my opinion, his performance was good.

C. In my opinion, I think his performance was good.

D. In my opinion, his performance was good.

32. He/ afraid/ sack/ lack of education.

A. He is afraid that he sacks lack of education.

B. He is afraid of sacking due to lack of education.

C. He is afraid of being sacked for lack of education.

D. He is afraid of being sacked because he lacks of education.

33. Without transportation, our modern society could not exist.

A. Our modern society could not exist if there is no transportation.

B. Our modern society will not exist without having transportation.

C. If there were no transportation, our modern society would not exist.

D. If transportation no longer exists, our modern society will not exist.

34. “You’d better think carefully before applying for that job.” She said to me.

A. She said me to think carefully before applying for that job.

B. She says me to think carefully before applying for that job.

C. She advise me to think carefully before applying for that job.

D. She advised me to think carefully before applying for that job.

35. The USA is a country of high youth unemployment.

A. The USA is a country of young people.

B. It is the USA that has a great number of young people.

C. High youth unemployment is found in the USA.

D. We find high youth unemployment a problem in the USA

Choose the correct word for each of the blanks.

BEFORE THE INTERVIEW

You should find out as much as possible about the job and the (41)__________. Before the interview, you have to send a letter of application and your resumes to the company to express your interest in the job and (42) __________that you may be the most suitable candidate for the position.

When you come to the interview, remember (43) __________with you your school certificates and letter of recommendation from your teachers or your previous employers. (44)__________you may jot down your qualifications and experience that can relate to the job and prepare for the questions that are often asked during the interview. Make sure you know where the interview is and (45)__________there. Be on time or a few minutes early. Don’t forget to dress neatly and formally.

41. A. vacancy B. career C. profession D. place.

42. A. showing B. to show C. shown D. show

43. A. to bring B. bringing C. brought D. bring

44. A. Although B. In addition C. however D. And

45. A. how to get B. how getting C. way getting D. to get

Choose the correct answer to each of the questions.

If parents bring up a child with the aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause great damage to him. According to several leading educational psychologist, this is one of the biggest mistakes which some parents make. Generally the child will understand very well the parents expect and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to their children.

However, if parents are not unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are hopeful in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well especially if the parents are very supportive of their children.

Michael Li is very lucky. He is very fond of music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons. Although Michael’s play the trumpet in a large orchestra, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling.

Michael’s friend, Winston Chen, however, is not so lucky. Although both his parents are successful musicians, they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him in every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. “When I was your age, I used to win every competition I enter,” Winton’s father tells him. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.

46. The main idea of the passage is____________________.

A. how parennts should make a child a musician.

B. how parents should bring up a child.

C. what differences there are between two kinds of parents.

D. what aim of a child can be much earlier to reach.

47. Michael is lucky because____________________.

A. His parents help him in a sensible way. B. His family is rich enough to have a car.

C. His father is a musician in an orchestra. D. He is free to do anything that he likes best.

48. Winton’s parents set so high a standard for him that ____________________.

A. He has to do his best to do everything.

B. He has made ggreater progress in music.

C. He is afraid that he may disappoint them

D. He often want to kill himself someday.

49. It is one of parents’ mistakes if____________________.

A. they want their child to be a musician.

B. They help their child to win music competition.

C. They don’t care for their child’s education much.

D. They make their child try to achieve too much.

50. According to the author’s opinion, ____________________.

A. It is unimportant to let the child develop in the way they want.

B. Parents should be supportive of their children.

C. All sensible parents can train their children to success in everything.

D. Unrealistic parents should arrange private lessons for their children.

——THE END——

Đề luyện thi đại học 2017 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án

Nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh đang ôn tập chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2017 nắm sát được những kiến thức cơ bản và cần thiết nhất của môn tiếng Anh, Dowload.com.vn xin giới thiệu đến các bạn bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh CÓ ĐÁP ÁN – Số 4. Bộ đề thi bao gồm các đề thi thử mới nhất có kèm đáp án cụ thể giúp các bạn ôn thi THPT Quốc gia hiệu quả. Chúc các bạn ôn tập tốt và thi đạt kết quả cao!

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh

Choose the word that is stressed differently from the rest.

1. A. hospital B. inflation C. policy D. constantly

2. A. government B. consumer C. domestic D. production

3. A. priority B. industry C. subsidy D. qualify

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.

4. A. choice B. chemist C. each D. achieve

5. A. applicant B. identity C. indicate D. chemistry

Choose the best answer to complete the blank in each of the following sentences.

6. If I feel too excited to sleep, I ________ reading one of our reports.

A. will try B. try C. would try D. would have tried

7. If he ________ well on the training course last year, he ________ offered the promotion now.

A. had done/ would be B. had done/ would have done

C. did/ would be D. did/ will be

8. What time would we get there ________ the subway?

A. we took B. if we took

C. unless we take D. provided that we take

9. He took me to the college ________.

A. he used to study B. in that he used to study

C. where he used to study D. which he used to study

10. ________ school is very important for ________ country to develop.

A. The/ a B. ø/ a C. The/ ø D. ø/ ø

11. He has been learning hard to prepare ________ the coming final exam.

A. for B. with C. on D. over

12. ________ the end of the course, the students have to take an exam on four basic skills of the target language.

A. In B. At C. On D. To

13. They are university professors who specialize ________ the history of the Russian empire.

A. on B. to C. in D. about

14. Secondary education in Hong Kong is largely based ________ the British education system.

A. on B. to C. in D. about

15. Tell me the day ________ you want to leave.

A. which B. in which C. that D. when

16. Of my students, Betty is the only one ________ has found a job.

A. whom B. which C. that D. whose

17. Have you ever visited New York harbor, ________ the famous Statue of Liberty stands?

A. which B. where C. that D. over which

18. The man and his dogs ________ were buried in the demolished building after the earthquake have just been rescued safely.

A. which B. who C. that D. whom

19. GCSE courses are ____ in a variety of subjects which are usually decided by the students themselves.

A. spent B. taken C. made D. looked

20. GCSEs are not compulsory, but they are the most common qualifications taken by 14-16 year-old students.

A. specialized B. fulfilled C. applied D. Required

21. An ‘A-level’ in Maths or a/ an ________ qualification is normally required.

A. equal B. same C. like D. equivalent

22. The control of ________ has been carried out through measures rooted in monetarism.

A. inflate B. inflation C. inflationist D. inflator

23. It is often a good idea to start with small, easily ________ goals.

A. achievable B. achieve C. achievement D. achiever

24. To my _______, I was not offered the job.

A. happiness B. dream C. joy D. disappointment

25. The Eiffel Tower ________ design was revolutionary at its time, is still a marvelous structure.

A. which B. that C. whose D. of which

26. Many children are under such a high ________ of learning that they do not feel happy at school.

A. recommendation B. interview C. pressure D. concentration

27. ________, he walked to the station.

A. Despite being tired B. Although to be tired

C. In spite being tired D. Despite tired

28. During the time of economic reforms, the economy has grown _______ with only a few major setbacks.

A. constant B. constantly C. constants D. constancy

29. The _______ effect of the new policy is that the farmer is now working for himself, and not for the state sake.

A. legal B. common C. all D. overall

30. After more than a decade of Doi Moi or economic _______, the Vietnamese Communist government has achieved diplomatic and economic links with numerous foreign partners.

A. relation B. investment C. productivity D. renovation

Choose the sentence that is closest in the meaning to the root one.

36. If I/ not/ television/ I/ hear/ burglar alarm/ off

A. If I hadn’t watched the television, I had heard the burglar alarm go off.

B. If I didn’t watch the television, I had heard the burglar alarm go off.

C. If I hadn’t watched the television, I would have heard the burglar alarm go off.

D. If I hadn’t watch the television, I would hear the burglar alarm go off.

37. He/ suffer/ rare tropical disease/ which/ contracted/ while/ Africa

A. He still suffers from a rare tropical disease which he contracted while he was in Africa.

B. He still suffers from a rare tropical disease which contracted while he was in Africa.

C. He suffers from a rare tropical disease which was contracted while he is in Africa.

D. He suffers from a rare tropical disease which he contracts while in Africa.

38. Laser/ device/ concentrate/ light waves/ intense beam.

A. Laser is a device concentrates light waves into an intense light beam.

B. The laser is a device to concentrate light waves to an intense light beam.

C. The laser is a device which concentrates light waves and an intense light beam.

D. Laser is a device which concentrates light waves into an intense light beam.

39. That book/ very thick/ belong/ younger sister.

A. That book, what is very thick, belongs to my younger sister.

B. That book, that is very thick, belongs to my younger sister.

C. That book, which is very thick, belongs to my younger sister.

D. That book, which is very thick, belongs my younger sister.

40. I did not answer the door even though I knew it was my friend.

A. Unless I knew it was my friend, I would not answer the door.

B. I knew it was my friend, but I did not answer the door.

C. Only when I answered the door did I knew it was my friend.

D. I answered the door since I knew it was my friend.

Read the passage and choose the best answers:

…Never say anything negative about past experiences, employers, or courses or professors. Always think of something positive about an experience and talk about that. You should also be __(31)__. If you are genuinely interested __(32)__ the job, let the interviewer know that.

One of the best ways to show you are keen on a job is to demonstrate that you have researched the organization prior to the interview. You can also __(33)__ interest by asking questions about the job, the organization, and its service and products. The best way to impress an employer is to ask questions that build your interview discussion. This shows you are interested and __(34)__ close attention to the interviewer. It is a good idea to prepare a few questions in advance, but an insightful comment based on your conversation can make an even stronger statement. At the __(35)__ of the interview, it is appropriate for you to ask when you may expect to hear from the employer.

41. A. enthusiasm B. enthusiastic C. enthusiastically D. enthusiast

42. A. with B. for C. on D. in

43. A. appear B. conceal C. show D. cover

44. A. pay B. choose C. make D. spend

45. A. close B. final C. end D. finish

Read the passage and choose the best answers:

University Entrance Examination is very important to Vietnamese students. High school graduates have to take it and get high results to be admitted to universities. The pressure on the candidates remains very high despite the measures that have been taken to reduce the heat around these exams, since securing a place in a state university is considered a major step towards a successful career for young people, especially those from rural areas or disadvantaged families. In the year 2004, it was estimated that nearly 1 million Vietnamese students took the University Entrance Examination, but on average only 1 out of 5 candidates succeeded. Normally, candidates take 3 exam subjects, and each lasts 180 minutes for the fixed group of subjects they choose. There are 4 fixed groups of subjects: Group A: Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry; Group B: Mathematics, Chemistry and Biology; Group C: Literature, History, and Geography; Group D: Literature, Foreign Language, and Mathematics.

In addition to universities, there are community colleges, art and technology institutes, professional secondary schools, and vocational schools which offer degrees or certificates from a-few-month to 2-year courses.

According to Vietnam’s Ministry of Education and Training, there are currently 23 non-public universities, accounting for 11% of the total number of universities. These non-public universities are currently training 119,464 students or 11.7% of the total number of students. The government is planning to increase the number of non-public universities to 30% by 2007.

46. University Entrance Examination in Vietnam is very _________.

A. interesting B. stressful C. free D. easy

47. The word those refers to _________.

A. exam subjects B. young people C. universities D. examinations

48. In 2004, the proportion of the students who got success in University Entrance Examination was about _________ percent.

A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 50

49. Which sentence refers to the University Entrance Examination in Vietnam?

A. Students find it easy to get success in the University Entrance Examination.

B. Maths is compulsory in the University Entrance Examination.

C. Students are not allowed to choose their exam subjects.

D. There are four fixed groups of exam subjects for students to choose.

50. According to the passage, _________.

A. the Vietnamese government will close all non-public universities by next year

B. the Vietnamese government does not appreciate non-public universities

C. the Vietnamese government encourages the establishment of non-public universities

D. Vietnamese students have no alternative to continue their higher study besides universities

——THE END——

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án

Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1. A. any B. daddy C. cat D. chat

2. A. talked B. passed C. called D. washed

3. A. come B. something C. comb D. grow

Choose the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words.

4. A. company B. official C. Australia D. encounter

5. A. knowledge B. bracket C. although D. neighbor

6. A. hopelessness B. athletics C. resident D. tolerance

Choose the best answer to complete the blank in each of the following sentences.

7. This room__________since I was born.

A. has been painted B. was painted C. painted D. has painted

8. What__________ you__________if you __________a billionaire? –I would take a trip into space.

A. will/do/ are B. would/do/ were C. can/do/was D. shall/do/ are

9. Have you seen the Titanic yet? _ No, I haven’t. I__________it next Saturday.

A. would see B. will see C. am going to see D. see

10. After__________dinner, I often watch TV.

A. ate B. eat C. eaten D. eating

11. Tom said that he __________his motorbike the day before.

A. had lost B. lost C. has lost D. lose

12. Do you believe__________God?

A. at B. of C. abou t D. in

13. Air and water are necessary__________us.

A. of B. for C. with D. to

14. The beautiful woman has a busy__________life.

A. society B. socialize C. social D. socializing

15. English has become the main language of__________.

A. communication B. communicate C. communicant D. communicative

16. Do you think doing the household chores is the__________of the women only?

A. responsibly B. responsible C. responsibility D. responsive

17. He did some odd jobs at home__________.

A. disappointment B. disappointedly C. disappointed D. disappoint

18. “I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!” –”__________”

A. What a lovely toy! Thanks. B. Have a nice day!

C. The same to you! D. What a pity!

19. ” Your hairstyle is terrific, Cindy” – “__________”

A. It’s nice B. You’re welcome C. Not at all D. Thanks, Peter

20. When students finish the secondary education, they have to take a(n)__________called GCSE.

A. check B. examination C. interview D. test

21. I spoke very slowly __________he didn’t understand English very well.

A. to B. so that C. because D. so

22. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. be related to B. express interest in C. be interested in D. pay attention to

23. ” I’m going away tomorrow, mother.”_ Leo told his mother that__________away the__________.

A. he was going/ following day C. I was going/ day after

B. I’m going/ day after D. he’s going/ following day

24. ” It was nice of you to give me the present. Thank you” Ben said to Mary.

Ben thanked Mary__________the present.

A. of giving him C. for giving him

B. it had been nice of her to give him D. that she had been nice to give him

25. Shakespeare wrote ” Romeo and Juliet” in 1605.

A. ” Romeo and Juliet” were written by Shakespeare in1605

B. ” Romeo and Juliet” was written by Shakespeare in 1605.

C. ” Romeo and Juliet” was written in 1605 by Shakespeare.

D. ” Romeo and Juliet” were written in 1605 by Shakespeare

26. The hurricane has totally destroyed the villages._ The villages__________by the hurricane.

A. have been totally destroyed C. have totally been destroyed

B. has been totally destroyed D. has totally been destroyed

27. If you don’t work much harder, you won’t pass the exam.

Unless you__________much harder, you__________the exam.

A. work/ will pass B. don’t work/ will pass

C. don’t work/ won’t pass D. work/ won’t pass

28. My sister is often sick because she doesn’t do physical exercise.

A. If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick.

B. If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick.

C. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick.

D. If my sister wasn’t physical exercise, she would do sick.

29. The river from__________we get our water- supply is nearly empty.

A. whose B. that C. where D. which

30. My father wants to speak to you. You met him yesterday.

My father__________you met yesterday, wants to speak to you.

A. whose B. whom C. whom D. that

31. In spite of his poorness, he is honest.

A. Although he is poor, he is honest. C. Despite he is poor, he is honest.

B. Although he is poor, but he is honest. D. In spite of he is poor, he is honest.

32. He only accepted the job__________the high salary.

A. though B. because C. because of D. in spite of

33. Did you read__________novel I lent you__________last week?

A. ф/ in B. a/ ф C. ф/on D. the/ф

34. __________rich should help__________poor and__________disabled.

A. a/ a/ a B. the/ the/ the C. ф/ ф/ ф D. the/ the/ ф

35. The man who is speaking to John is my brother.

A. The man spoke to John is my brother.

C. The man spoken to John is my brother.

B. The man is speaking to John is my brother.

D. The man speaking to John is my brother.

36. He read The Old Man and The Sea, a novel__________by Ernest Hemingway.

A. written B. writing C. which written D. that wrote

Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.

The habits of those who constantly play video games are very important to people working in video-game industry. If video games are going to one of the most attractive features of future interactive systems, it is essential for producers to know what types of games to make, how best to present such games on interactive video, and how to ensure that such games maintain their fascination for people. Above all, it is vital to build up detailed profiles of people who are addicted to video games.

Until recently, the chief market for video games has been boys aged eight to fifteen. The fascination for interactive video games is seen in its purest form in this group. Video games appeal to some deep instinct in boys who find it impossible to tear themselves from them. Schoolwork is ignored, health is damaged and even eating habits are affected. Girls of the same age, however, are entirely different, demonstrating far greater freedom from the hold of video games. Quite simply, they can take video games in their strike, being able to play them when they want and then leave them alone.

41. Producers of video games are keen on __________.

A. finding the best ways of continuing to attract people

B. developing computer techniques in making such games

C. learning about drug to which people are addicted

D. designing ways

42. The people who are most attracted to video games are __________.

A. young adult women

B. boys from eight to fifteen years old

C. girls between eight and fifteen

D. supermarket assistants

43. __________have different attitude towards playing video games.

A. Adult men and women

B. Boys and girls from eight to fifteen

C. Girls and boys above eight

D. Girls and boys below eight

44. The addiction to video games can be so powerful that it can __________.

A. separate boys from girls

B. make people relaxing

C. destroy people’s instincts

D. make people physically ill.

45. Compared with boys of the same age, girls are __________.

A. more intelligent than boys

B. more addicted to video games

C. more concentrated on video games

D. less affected by video games

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

Speech is one of the most important ways of communicating. It consists of far more than just (46)_________noises. To talk or to (47)_________by other people, we have to master a language, that is, we have to use combinations of sound that (48)_________for a particular object or idea. Communication (49)_________impossible if everyone (50)_________up their own language.

46. A. makes B. make C. to make D. making

47. A. understanding B. understand C. be understood D. be understandable

48. A. to stand B. stand C. stands D. standing

49. A. is B. will be C. would be D. was

50. A. made B. makes C. make D. will make

——THE END——

Để chuẩn bị cho kì thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2017 sắp tới đạt kết quả tốt nhất, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin giới thiệu đến các bạn Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chu Văn An, Yên Bái CÓ ĐÁP ÁN (16 đề). Việc luyện tập và làm quen với các dạng đề thi sẽ giúp các em củng cố lại kiến thức và tích lũy kinh nghiệm giải đề thi đạt kết quả cao nhất. Chúc các bạn ôn thi tốt!

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh CÓ ĐÁP ÁN – Số 5

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường Đại học Ngoại Thương, Hà Nội

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường Đại học Ngoại Thương (Lần 2)

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chu Văn An, Yên Bái CÓ ĐÁP ÁN (1)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. lunch B. kitchen C. technology D. purchase

Question 1: A. news B. songs C. feelings D. delights

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. intelligent B. calculator C. impossible D. American

Question 4. A. eradicate B. continental C. popularity D. beneficial

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. Some scientists say that it is still not too late to minimize the effects of climate change________ enough money and effort are invested in correct projects.

A. in case B. ao that C. even if D. provided that

Question 9. Having finished her degree, __________________.

A. she started to work for an international company B. It took her 2 years to find a good job

C. the students carried out many experiments D. her job came up to her expectation.

Question 10. _______________, and the lesson began.

A. In comes the teacher B. In came the teacher

C. In the teacher was coming D. In was coming the teacher

Question 11. The teacher was explaining the lesson slowly and clearly_____________.

A. to make his students to understand it B. in order that his students can understand it

C. so as to that his students could understand it D. so that his students could understand it

Question 12. After you’ve ______ your brother at the swimming pool. Could you do some shopping for me?

A. given up B. handed in C. dropped off D. passed out

Question 13. As my secretary will be away for a couple of days, would you be kind enough to ________ my correspondence?

A. play back B. bring off C. return to D. take care of

Question 14. ______________ his assistance in those days, I would not be so successful now.

A. Unless I had B. If there were not C. If it had not for D. Had it not been for

Question 15. The United States consists of fifty states, ______ has its own government.

A. each B. each of which C. each of them D. each of that

Question 16. Sue: “The lecturer was a tall thin man with white hair.”

Robert: “Then it ______have been Dr Fell because he is short and fat.”

A. must B. mustn’t C. shouldn’t D. can’t

Question 17. It is necessary that a life guard ___________ the swimming pool while the children are taking their swimming lessons.

A. monitors B. must monitor C. monitor D. can monitor

Question 18. If energy _________ inexpensive and unlimited, many things in the world would be different.

A. is B. will be C. would be D. were

Question 19. People________how to dye their clothes even before they knew how to read and write.

A. had known B. have known C. knew D. are known

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. “………………………… ” – “Oh, That sounds interesting”

A. How are the cakes? B. What cakes do you like?

C. Would you like some cakes? D. What do you think about the cakes?

Question 21. Anne: “Make yourself at home. ” – John: “___________”

A. Yes, Can I help you? B. That’s very kind. Thank you

C. Thanks! Same to you D. Not at all. Don’t mention it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Sam is twenty-two years old, and his sister is eleven.

A. Sam is twice as old as his sister. B. Sam’s sister is eleven years younger than him.

C. Sam is older than his sister two times. D. A and B are correct.

Question 27. ” Why don’t we ban the sale of alcohol at football matches,” said the man.

A. The man suggested that they would ban the sale of alcohol at football matches.

B. It was suggested that the sale of alcohol at football matches be banned by the man.

C. The man suggested that the sale of alcohol at football matches should be banned.

D. It was suggested that the man should ban the sale of alcohol at football matches.

Question 28. The boy said to his teacher, “I haven’t finished the assignment yet. I’m really sorry”.

A. The boy apologized to his teacher for not having finished the assignment.

B. The boy apologized his teacher for not having finished the assignment.

C. The boy said sorry to his teacher for not having finished the assignment.

D. The boy apologized to his teacher for having not finished the assignment.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. He had spent all his money. He decided to go home and ask his father for a job.

A. Spent all his money, he decided to go home and ask his father for a job.

B. Having spent all his money, he decided to go home and ask his father for a job.

C. In spite of having spent all his money, he decided to go home and ask his father for a job.

D. Deciding to go home and ask his father for a job. he had spent all his money.

Question 30. He may seem friendly. He’s not to be trusted.

A. However he seems friendly, he’s not to be trusted.

B. Friendly may he seem, he’s not to be trusted.

C. No matter friendly he seems, he’s not to be trusted.

D. Friendly though he may seem, he’s not to be trusted.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

From the next year, every student in their final rear at our school will study for a compulsory Diploma of Practical Achievement. This will be in addition to the normal examinations. Up to now, the course has been optional, but from now on every student must (31)_________it.

The aim is to (32)__________ students with “life skills”, which the Diploma divides into eight categories. These cover a range of things relevant to life beyond school, from sending an e-mail to giving presentation to an audience. Under the heading “survival”, (33)_______, students can learn car mainternance, first aid and cooking. We have discovered that many students cannot do simple things such as mend a puncture or boil an egg. At the other extreme, the Diploma includes such things as how to design a webpage and how to cope if someone has a heart attack. It has been called a ” Diploma in Common Sense”.

On the course, students will not be taught in the traditional (34)__________, but rather will be guided and encouraged to do things for themselves. This is above all a practical “hand-on” course. To a greater or lesser extent, good schools have always tried to (35)__________these skills. Unfortunately, students have not always shown much interest because such skills are not directly related to passing exams for higher education. We hope this will change now that we have a proper course that will lead to a recognised diploma.

Question 31. A. pick B. make C. adopt D. take

Question 32. A. equip B. give C. offer D. donate

Question 33. A. as a result B. therefore C. otherwise D. for example

Question 34. A. means B. approach C. route D. way

Question 35. A. grow B. develop C. make D. do

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Archaeological records ― paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans engaged in activities involving the use of hands ― indicate that humans have been predominantly right-handed for more than 5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right-hand is depicted as the dominant one in about 90percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools also indicate that a majority of ancient people were right-handed.

Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000years old commonly show outlines of human hands made by placing one hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other. Children today make similar outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of Cro-Magnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were usually done by right-handers.

Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors back to at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence comes from flaking patterns of stone cores used in toolmaking: implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a right-handed toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation (indicating a left-handed toolmaker).

Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to have cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone knives, as do the present-day Inuit. Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users’ teeth. Scratches made with a left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than scratches in the opposite direction (made by left-handers).

Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical differences between the two sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres corresponds to which side of the body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as studies of tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided dominance is not exclusive to modern Homo sapiens. Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus and Homo habilis,seem to have been predominantly right-handed, as we are.

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chu Văn An, Yên Bái CÓ ĐÁP ÁN (2)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. news B. songs C. feelings D. delights

Question 2: A. determine B. together C. repeat D. report

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. answer B. complain C. listen D. travel

Question 4: A. information B. nationality C. engineering D. biology

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: We _______ today and I got into trouble because I hadn’t done it.

A. were checked our homework B. have our homework checking

C. had checked our homework D. had our homework checked

Question 9: Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, _______ ancient Peruvians did through natural processes.

A. because C. whether or not C. whereas D. even though

Question 10: Please cut my hair _______ the style in this magazine.

A. the same length like B. the same length as C. the same long like D. the same long as

Question 11: He never seems to be serious when talking with me. He is always trying to ________.

A. cut my hair B. pull my leg C. look into my eyes D. pay through the nose

Question 12: _______, he would have been able to pass the exam.

A. Studying more B. Had he studied more C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more

Question 13: They seemed to be _______ to the criticism and just carried on as before.

A. disinterested B. sensitive C. uncaring D. indifferent

Question 14: _________with the size of the whole Earth, the highest mountains do not seem high at all.

A. Compare them B. A comparison C. If you compare D. When compared

Question 15. On being told about her sack, _________________

A. her boss felt sorry for Mary B. Mary felt sorry for her boss

C. Mary’s face turned pale D. Mary was shocked

Question 16: When I got my case back, it had been damaged _______ repair.

A. over B. further C. above D. beyond

Question 17: __________that she burst into tears.

A. So angry was she B. Such her anger C. She was so anger D. Her anger was so

Question 18: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are _______.

A. out of reach B. out of practice C. out of stock D. out of work

Question 19: Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t _____________as usual.

A. take off B. go off C. get off D. ring off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: – “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”

– “_______”

A. Never mind B. I can’t agree with you more

C. You can say that again D. It’s rubbish. We shouldn’t use it.

Question 21: Mark: -“_______” Helen: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”

A. What a beautiful dress you have on! B. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!

C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you? D. When have you got this beautiful dress?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: The meeting was put off because of pressure of time.

A. The meeting started earlier because people wanted to leave early.

B. There was not enough time to hold the meeting.

C. The meeting was planned to start late because of time pressure.

D. The meeting lasted much longer than usual.

Question 27: “I’m sorry I made a mistake.” said he.

A. He blamed her for making a mistake.

B. He said he had made a mistake.

C. He apologized for making a mistake.

D. He admitted that he had made a mistake.

Question 28: We would have had a better time at the party if we had known some of the other guests.

A. We guess we had a better time at the party than the other people.

B. We had a good time with the guests at the party.

C. We knew none of the people at the party.

D. We knew almost every person at the party.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.

A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.

B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.

C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.

D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.

Question 30: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.

A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.

B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.

C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.

D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee? The school teach a (36) ____ many things of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future employee to know. But very few students bother to learn it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee will depend on your ability to communicate with people and to present your own thoughts and ideas to them so they will (39) _____ understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.

Of course, skill in expression is not enough by itself. You must have something to say in the first place. The effectiveness of your job depends (41) ____ your ability to make other people understand your work as they do on the quality of the work itself.

Expressing one’s thoughts is one skill that the school can really teach. The foundations for skill in expression have to be laid early: an interest in and an ear (44) ___ language; experience in organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit of verbal expression. If you do not lay these foundations during your school years, you may never have an opportunity again.

Question 31: A. great B. far C. large D. lost

Question 32: A. learning B. to learn C. with learning D. learn

Question 33: A. not B. as well C. both D. either

Question 35: A. on most B. most on C. much on D. on much

Question 35 A. by B. in C. for D. of

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum.
Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold.

It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own.

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh theo cấu trúc mới của Bộ GD&ĐT. Chiều ngày 21/03/2017 tất cả các thí sinh lớp 12 tại Hà Nội làm bài thi thử môn tiếng Anh. Sau đây xin mời các em học sinh lớp 12 cùng giải đề thi để tích lũy thêm kiến thức và kinh nghiệm cho kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2017 sắp tới.

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chu Văn An, Yên Bái (16 đề)

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường Đại học Ngoại Thương (Lần 2)

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường Đại học Ngoại Thương, Hà Nội

Đề thi thử đại học 2017 môn Tiếng Anh

Đáp án Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh Sở GD&ĐT Hà Nội

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án

Kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2017 đang đến gần, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin giới thiệu đến các bạn học sinh lớp 12 Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Cảm Ân, Yên Bái CÓ ĐÁP ÁN (4). Hi vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp ích nhiều trong việc ôn tập và chuẩn bị kiến thức cho kỳ thi THPT quốc gia sắp tới của các bạn.

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh – Thành phố Hà Nội (Có đáp án)

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chu Văn An, Yên Bái (16 đề)

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường Đại học Ngoại Thương (Lần 2)

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 1. A. food B. shoot C. boot D. book

Question 2. A. council B. socialize C. secure D. police

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. enormous B. corridor C. mystery D. separate

Question 4. A. addition B. identity C. medicine D. emotion

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 5: What I told her a few days ago were not the solutions to most of her problems.

A B C D

Question 6: My father used to giving me some good advice whenever I had a problem.

A B C D

Question 7: Several people have apparenttried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses tolisten.

A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges

Question 8. John: “Could I just do it right now?”

– Jane: “________”

A. Not for me. B. Yes, you could. C. Why not? Go ahead. D. Yes, let’s

Question 9: Tom: “Would you like another coffee?”

Jerry: ” ____ “

A. Very kind of your part B. I’d love one. C. It’s a pleasure. D. Me, too.

Select the best answer that has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined words of each sentence.

Question 10. The bank announced that it was to merge with another of the high street banks.

A. associate B. separate C. assemble D. cooperate

Question 11. They are fighting to eradicate the legacy of starvation caused by the civil war.

A. indicate B. distinguish C. create D. get ridof

Select the best answer that has the CLOSEST meaning to the underlined words of each sentence.

Question 12: You ought to send two hours as a minimum in the fresh air every day.

A. at least B. at all C. at most D. at ease

Question 13. If no specific measures are taken, what is occurring to the Earth will cause all species including human race to vanish.

A. attacked B. disappear C. prosper D. devastate

Select the best choice to complete each of the following sentences which have one missing word or phrases.

Question 14 Several cars, _______ owners had parked them under the trees, were damaged.

A. whose B. their C. whom D. of which

Question 15. As they came under heavy fire, the captain ordered his men to _______.

A. fall away B. fall out C. fall back D. fall over

Question 16. Never before _______ in an earnest attempt to resolve their differences.

A. have the leaders of these two countries meet B. met the leaders of these two countries

C. the leaders of these two countries have met D. have the leaders of these two countries met

Question 17. The number of chromosomes in a cell _______ from species to species.

A. varying B. to vary C. vary D. varies

Question 18. The ministry refused to ________ the figures to the press.

A. release B. show C. leak D. add

Question 10. _______ sighting an approaching car, some drivers tend to speed up.

A. When slowing down instead of B. When instead of slowing down

C. Instead of slowing down when D. Instead when slowing down at

Question 20. You _______ out yesterday without a coat. No wonder you caught cold.

A. mustn’t have gone B hadn’t gone C. haven’t gone D. shouldn’t have gone

Question 21. I’m really sleepy today. I wish I ________ Bob to the airport late last night.

A. didn’t have to take B. didn’t take C. hadn’t had to take D. weren’t taking

Question 22: I wasn’t properly dressed for the party and felt ___ about my appearance.

A. embarrass B. embarrassed C. embarrassment D. embarrassing

Question 23. Ballet dancers, _______ actors, must spend many hours a day practicing before a performance.

A. the same B. same as C. like D. the like

Question 24. The more effect you put in this project, ________________.

A. the more satisfied the results are B. the more satisfying you are

C. the more satisfying the results are D. the more satisfied are the results

Question 25: The polar bear’s ___ depends on its ability to catch fish.

A. survival B. survive C. surviving D. survivor

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is the closest in meaning.

Question 26.”You’d better not lend Mark any more money, Elizabeth”, said John.

A. Johns tells Elizabeth that she would better not lend Mark any more money.

B. Johns advised Elizabeth that she had better not lend Mark any more money.

C. Johns advised Elizabeth not to lend Mark any more money.

D. Johns said to Elizabeth that she would better lend Mark any money.

Question 27. “Why didn’t I get a computer before?” thought Jane.

A. Jane wondered why she haven’t got a computer in the previous time.

B. Jane wondered why she hadn’t got a computer in the previous time.

C. Jane wondered why she didn’t get a computer in the previous time.

D. Jane wondered why not she got a computer in the previous time.

Question 28. “You stole my best cassette, Bob!” said Willy.

A. Willy accused Bob for having stolen his best cassette.

B. Willy accused Bob on having stolen his best cassette.

C. Willy accused Bob to have stolen his best cassette.

D. Willy accused Bob of having stolen his best cassette

Question 29. The eldest one of his three daughters has graduated from university.

A. His daughter, who is the eldest, has graduated from university.

B. He has three daughters, the eldest of whom has graduated from university

C. He has three daughters; the eldest of them has graduated from university.

D. His three daughters have graduated from university.

Question 30. “You should have returned the book to me before I asked you to,” the girl said to her younger brother.

A. The girl told her brother to return the book when she asked.

B. The girl blamed her brother for returning the book late.

C. The girl advised her brother to return the book early.

D. The girl wanted to have the book returned to her brother soon.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer

Pandemic

Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no diseases, the population would grow too quickly, and there would not be enough food or other resources. So in a way, diseases are nature’s way of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across the world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease are called pandemics.

Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have a few things in common.

First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time to spread to a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread.

While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For example, in 2002 and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic.

Question 31: This passage is mainly about ____.

A. pandemic diseases throughout history. B. pandemic diseases

C. how to prevent pandemic diseases. D. why pandemics happen.

Tài liệu ôn thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2017 có đáp án

Để giúp các bạn học sinh lớp 12 ôn tập và nắm vững kiến thức của môn Tiếng Anh trước khi bước vào kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2017, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin gửi đế các bạn Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Hoàng Quốc Việt, Yên Bái (CÓ ĐÁP ÁN). Chúc các bạn ôn thi tốt và đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2017 sắp tới!

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh CÓ ĐÁP ÁN – Số 4

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh CÓ ĐÁP ÁN – Số 5

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường Đại học Ngoại Thương, Hà Nội

Đề thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2017

Đề 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. muddy B. punctual C. studious D. culture

Question 2: A. determine B. examine C. valentine D. heroine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. purchase B. project C. protect D. produce

Question 4: A. rhinoceros B. concentrate C. comfortable D. literature

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Don’t be concerned about your mother’s illness; she’ll recover soon.

A. surprised at B. worried about C. embarrassed at D. angry with

Question 6: The yearly growth of the gross national product is often used as an indicator of a nation’s economy.

A. annual B. irrefutable C. tentative D. routine

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 7: After Senator Smith announced that he planned to run for president, the telephone at campaign headquarters rang continuously.

A. endlessly B. inceasingly C. incisively D. constantly

Question 8: Perhaps more than anything else, it was onerous taxes that led to ‘the Peasants’ Revolt in England in 1381.

A. burdensome B. heavy C. easy D. light

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9: For the first time in the history of the country, the person who recommended by the president to replace a retired justice on the Supreme Court is a woman.

A. is B. a retired justice C. to replace D. who recommended

Question 10: It is interested to compare the early stylized art forms of ancient civilizations with the modern abstract forms of art.

A. ancient B. interested C. early stylized D. with

Question 11: Humans have done great advances in technology at the expense of the environment.

A. have done B. at the expense C. advances D. humans

Question 12: There was a gradual raise in the number of literate males and females in the Lowlands.

A. in the Lowlands B. was C. raise D. the number of

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 13: Having been selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the International Convention, ____________.

A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him

C. he gave a short acceptance speech D. the members congratulated him

Question 14: I’m not surprised she changed her mind____________ the last moment.

A. on B. at C. in D. for

Question 15: The players were cheered by their____________ as they came out of the pitch.

A. public B. supporters C. viewers D. audience

Question 16: Because of his poor health, it took him a long time to____________ his bad cold.

A. throw over B. throw off C. throw away D. throw down

Question 17: The hut____________ is said to be haunted.

A. at the foot of the hill B. in the foot of the hill

C. by the foot of the hill D. with the foot of the hill

Question 18: Mrs. Brown had her bicycle____________ yesterday.

A. repairing B. repair C. repaired D. be repaired

Question 19: They might have told us the way_____________ we hadn’t left in such a hurry way.

A. or B. unless C. when D. if

Question 20: – Anna: “____________________”

– Bob: “I’m glad you enjoyed it. Hope to see you again soon.”

A. That’s a great dinner. Thanks a lot. You’ll have to come to our place sometime.

B. My uncle is coming soon. Would you like to come to our dinner?

C. I highly appreciate for the houses you’ve rebuilt for our village.

D. I don’t mind going to the party sometimes but when I know everybody there then I enjoy it.

Question 21: The pay was not brilliant but I could____________ and there were many aspects of the job that I enjoyed.

A. earn high salary B. do a living C. get high salary D. make a living

Question 22: – Linda: “What kinds of music do you like, Mary?”

– Mary: “___________________”

A. You really guess so. B. Well, I guess I’m really into jazz.

C. Hmm, no, I don’t really like Westerns. D. Concert

Question 23: – Peter: “Could you fill it up, please? – Ivan: “________________”

A. Where? Of course not. B. Not at all. I’ll fill the oil for you.

C. Sure. Shall I check the oil as well?” D. Certainly. My job is to fill in the application.

Question 24: The university’s programs___________ those of Harvard.

A. are second only to B. come second after

C. are in second place from D. are first except for

Question 25: It was____________ that we decided to stay indoors.

A. such a hot day B. so a hot day C. so a day hot D. such a day hot

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

The steamer Mongolia was built of iron. It was due at eleven a.m. on Wednesday, the 9th of October, at Suez. The Mongolia sailed regularly between Brindisi and Bombay (26)______ the Suez Canal, and was one of the fastest steamers belonging to the company. Two men were walking up and down the dock at Suez (27)______ the crowd of natives and strangers in this fast-growing town. One was the British consul at Suez who was in the (28)______ of watching, from his office window, English ships daily passing to and fro along the great canal.

The other was a showing unmistakable sign of impatience, nervously (29)______ up and down, and unable to stand (30)______ for a moment. This was Fix, one of the detectives who had been sent from England in search of the bank robber. It was his task to (31)______ every passenger who arrived at Suez, and to follow up any suspicious (32)______, or anyone who bore a (33)______ to the description of the criminal which he had received two days before from police headquarters at London. “So you say, consul,” he asked for the twentieth time, “that this steamer is never (34)______ schedule?” “No, Mr. Fix,” replied the consul. “The Mongolia has always been (35)______ of the time required by the company’s regulations.”

Question 26: A. via B. near C. over D. beside

Question 27: A. within B. among C. in D. between

Question 28: A habit B. style C. routine D. way

Question 29: A. crawling B. pacing C. jumping D. hopping

Question 30: A. quiet B. motionless C. unmoving D. still

Question 31: A. see B. observe C. look D. view

Question 32: A. character B. man C. being D. human

Question 33: A. familiarity B. correspondence C. coincidence D. resemblance

Question 34: A. behind B. before C. after D. off

Question 35: A. before B. after C. ahead D. behind

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Alexis de Tocqueville, the French political scientist, historian, philosopher and politician, is most famous for a four-volume book he wrote called “Democracy in America”. He came to America in 1831 to study the American form of democracy and what it might mean to the rest of the world. After a visit of only nine months, he wrote a remarkable book which is regarded as a classic. De Tocqueville had unusual powers of observation. He described not only the democratic system of government and how it operated, but also its effect on how Americans think, feel, and act. Many scholars believe he had a deeper understanding of traditional American beliefs and values than anyone else who has written about the United States. What is so remarkable is that many of these traits which he observed nearly 200 years ago, are still visible and meaningful today. His observations are also important because the timing of his visit, the 1830s, was before America was industrialized. This was the era of the small farmer, the small businessman, and the settling of the western frontier. It was the period of history when the traditional values of the new country were newly established. In just a generation, some 40 years since the adoption of the U.S. Constitution, the new form of government had already produced a society of people with unique values. He was, however, a neutral observer and saw both the good and bad sides of these qualities.

Đề 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question1: A. agreed B. missed C. liked D. watched

Question 2: A. educate B. eliminate C. certificate D. dedicate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. religious B. performance C. miserable D. including

Question 4: A. decoration B. temperament C. Opportunity D. expectation

Choose A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 5: American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.

A. inevitably B. readily C. happily D. traditionally

Question 6: “Edwards seems like a dog with two tails this morning”. Haven’t you heard the news? His wife gave birth to a baby boy early this morning”

A. very proud B. exhausted C. extremely dazed D. extremely pleased

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 7: For most male spiders courtship is a perilous procedure, for they may be eaten by females.

A. complicated B. dangerous C. safe D. peculiar

Question 8: Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.

A. reveal B. conserve C. presume D. cover

Choose A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 9: Alaska’s vast areas of untamed wilderness attracts many people who enjoy the outdoors.

A. wilderness B. untamed C. enjoy D. attracts

Question 10: Manufacturers may use food additives for preserving, to color, or to flavor, or to fortify foods.

A. to flavor B. fortify foods C. for preserving D. many use

Question 11: Computer science which is considered by some scientists to have a much closer relationship with mathematics than many scientific disciplines.

A. much closer B. than many C. which is considered D. some scientists

Question 12: If one type of manufacturing expands, it is like that another type will shrink considerably.

A. expands B. like C. another D. considerably

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question13: I love this painting of an old man. He has such a beautiful_________ smile.

A. childlike B. childish C. childhood D. childless

Question14: Tuition fee must be paid_________ before or on the due date.

A. neither B. either C. also D. not only

Question15: Please report_________ the supervisor if you find anything unusual.

A. for B. into C. among D. to

Question16: Student: “_______________.” Teacher: “No worries. Come in, please.”

A. I’m late B. I want to come in. C. I’m sorry I’m late. D. I’ve just arrived.

Question17: Mai: “Thank you so much.” – Sue: “_______________”

A. Don’t take it. B. Don’t mention it. C. Don’t say so. D. Don’t think so.

Question 18:”I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!” – “__________”

A. What a lovely toy! Thanks. B.Have a nice day! C. The same to you! D. What a pity!

Question 19: It is vital that everyone_________ aware of the protection of the environment.

A. is B. be C. are D. to be

Question 20: Never in my life_________ such an intelligent hoy.

A. I have met B. I haven’t met C. have I met D. haven’t I met

Question 21: Penicillin, _____, probably came into widespread use after the Second World War.

A. an antibiotic of known B. was known the antibiotic

C. the best-known antibiotic D. known best antibiotic

Question 22: An: “What is this letter about?”

Mai: “It’s in regard_________ at the conference next week.”

A. to you speak B. to you speaking C. of your speaking D. to your speaking

Question 23: ______ we invested in the oil industry two years ago, we would be wealthy by now.

A. When B. Had C . Unless D. Although

Question 24: She has spent her entire life not only teaching young generations subject knowledge_________ also educating them to become helpful citizens of the nation.

A. and B. but C. so D. or

Question 25: _________ how much money she spends on her clothes, she never looks well-dressed.

A. Despite B. Without C. Regardless D. No matter

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks.

The well-being of America’s rural people and places depends upon many things – the availability of good-paying jobs; (26)______ to critical services such as education, health care, and communication; strong communities; and a healthy natural environment. And, (27)______ urban America is equally dependent upon these things, the challenges to well-being look very different in rural areas than in urban areas. Small-scale, low-density settlement (28)______ make it more costly for communities and businesses to provide critical services. Declining jobs and income in the natural resource-based industries that many rural areas depend on force workers in those industries to find new ways to make a living. Low-skill, low-wage rural manufacturing industries must find new ways to challenge the increasing number of (29)______ competitors. Distance and remoteness impede many rural areas from being connected to the urban centers of economic activity. Finally, changes in the availability and use of natural resources located in rural areas (30)______ the people who earn a living from those resources and those who (31)______ recreational and other benefits from them. Some rural areas have met these challenges successfully, achieved some level of prosperity, and are ready (32)______ the challenges of the future. Others have neither met the current challenges nor positioned themselves for the future. Thus, concern for rural America is real. And, while rural America is a producer of critical goods and services, the (33)______ goes beyond economics. Rural America is also home to a fifth of the Nation’s people, keeper of natural amenities and national treasures, and safeguard of a/an unique part of American culture, tradition, and history.

Question 26: A. key B. access C. challenge D. advantage

Question 27: A. while B. when C. because D. since

Question 28: A. means B. patterns C. tools D. styles

Question 29: A. abroad B. lateral C. rural D. foreign

Question 30: A. encourage B. affect C. stimulate D. effect

Question 31: A. derive B. evolve C. bring D. involve

Question 32: A. with B. in C. for D. of

Question 33: A. concern B. stimulus C. research D. impatience

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The issue of equality for women in British society first attracted national attention in the early 20th century, when the suffragettes won for women the right to vote. In the 1960s feminism became the subject of intense debate when the women’s liberation movement encouraged women to reject their traditional supporting role and to demand equal status and equal rights with men in areas such as employment and pay. Since then, the gender gap between the sexes has been reduced. The Equal Pay Act of 1970, for instance, made it illegal for women to be paid less than men for doing the same work, and in 1975 the Sex Discrimination Act aimed to prevent either sex having an unfair advantage when applying for jobs. In the same year the Equal Opportunities Commission was set up to help people claim their rights to equal treatment and to publish research and statistics to show where improvements in opportunities for women need to be made. Women now have much better employment opportunities, though they still tend to get less well-paid jobs than men, and very few are appointed to top jobs in industry. In the US the movement that is often called the “first wave of feminism” began in the mid-1800s. Susan B. Anthony worked for the right to vote, Margaret Sanger wanted to provide women with the means of contraception so that they could decide whether or not to have children, and Elizabeth Blackwell, who had to fight for the chance to become a doctor, wanted women to have greater opportunities to study. Many feminists were interested in other social issues. The second wave of feminism began in the 1960s. Women like Betty Friedan and Gloria Steinem became associated with the fight to get equal rights and opportunities for women under the law. An important issue was the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA), which was intended to change the Constitution. Although the ERA was not passed, there was progress in other areas. It became illegal for employers, schools, clubs, etc. to discriminate against women. But women still find it hard to advance beyond a certain point in their careers, the so-called glass ceiling that prevents them from having high-level jobs. Many women also face the problem of the second shift, i.e. the household chores. In the 1980s, feminism became less popular in the US and there was less interest in solving the remaining problems, such as the fact that most women still earn much less than men. Although there is still discrimination, the principle that it should not exist is widely accepted.

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh – ĐH Ngoại Thương

Nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh lớp 12 ôn tập và chuẩn bị kiến thức cho kỳ thi THPT tốt nhất, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin giới thiệu đến các bạn Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường Đại học Ngoại Thương, Hà Nội CÓ ĐÁP ÁN (Lần 3). Hi vọng, đây sẽ là tài liệu tham khảo và luyện tập hữu ích dành cho các bạn học sinh lớp 12. Chúc các bạn ôn thi tốt và đạt kết quả trong kì thi THPT quốc gia 2017.

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh các trường THPT Chuyên trên cả nước (có đáp án)

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh CÓ ĐÁP ÁN – Số 5

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Sinh học trường chuyên Đại học Vinh (Lần 1)

Đáp án Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường Đại học Ngoại Thương, Hà Nội (Lần 3)

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh các trường THPT Chuyên

Để giúp các bạn học sinh lớp 12 ôn thi và củng cố lại những kiến thức đã học để bước vào kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2017 đạt kết quả tốt nhất, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin giới thiệu đến các bạn Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh các trường THPT Chuyên trên cả nước. Sau đây mời các bạn cùng tham khảo.

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chuyên Lương Văn Chánh, Phú Yên có đáp án (Lần 1)

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Huệ, Hà Nội (Lần 1)

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh – Thành phố Hà Nội (Có đáp án)

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chuyên Lương Văn Chánh, Phú Yên có đáp án (Lần 1)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. animal	B. character	C. imagine	D. personality
Question 2: A. degree	B. critical	C. fertile	D. minimum

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. economics	B. engineering	C. information	D. geography
Question 4: A. opponent	B. vertical	C. windsurfing	D. penalt

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 22: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.

A. wealthy B. kind C. broke D. poor

Question 23: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.

A. earn money B. spend money C. sit still D. economize

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.

A. dissatisfied B. excited C. shocked D. interested

Question 25: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.

A. large quantity B. excess C. small quantity D. sufficiency

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: We have run out of the items you want.

A. We have to run out to buy the items you want.

B. The items you want are out of our shop.

C. For the items you want, we must run out.

D. The items you want have been out of stock.

Question 27: She had only just begun to speak when people started interrupting.

A. She hardly had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

B. Hardly she had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

C. Hardly had she begun to speak when people started interrupting.

D. She hadn’t begun to speak when people started interrupting.

Question 28: “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!”shouted the lady to the man.

A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.

D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.

A. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it.

B. As Marry couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.

C. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.

D. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.

Question 30: The fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames. The building burned down completely.

A. The building burned down completely though the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames.

B. Had it not been for the fire-fighters’ every effort, the building would have burned down completely.

C. Making every effort to put off the flames, the fire-fighters completely burned down the building.

D. Since the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned down completely.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The threat to the Environment

Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in danger. Many species of animals will become (31) if we do not make an effort to protect them.

There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are (32) for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught alive and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat – the place where they live – is (33). More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and (34) wildlife. The most successful animals on earth – human beings – will soon be the only ones (35) _, unless we can solve this problem

Question 31: Question 32:	A. disappeared A. hunted	B. vanished B. chased	C. empty C. game	D. extinct D. extinct
Question 33:	A. exhausting	B. departing	C. escaping	D. disappearing
Question 34:	A. spoil	B. harm	C. wound	D. wrong
Question 35:	A. survived	B. over	C. missing	D. left

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chuyên Đại học Sư phạm Hà Nội có đáp án (Lần 3)

Đáp án Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chuyên Đại học Sư phạm Hà Nội

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chuyên Đại học Sư phạm Hà Nội

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh

Nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh lớp 12 ôn tập và chuẩn bị kiến thức để tự tin bước vào kỳ thi THPT quốc gia 2017 sắp tới, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin giới thiệu đến các bạn Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT chuyên Khoa học tự nhiên – ĐHQG Hà Nội (Lần 4). Đề thi có đáp án đi kèm sẽ giúp các bạn kiểm tra và củng cố lại những kiến thức của môn Tiếng Anh. Chúc các bạn ôn tập tốt và thi đạt kết quả cao!

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh CÓ ĐÁP ÁN – Số 1

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chu Văn An, Yên Bái (16 đề)

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh các trường THPT Chuyên trên cả nước (có đáp án)

Đáp án Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT chuyên Khoa học tự nhiên – ĐHQG Hà Nội (Lần 4)

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT chuyên Khoa học tự nhiên – ĐHQG Hà Nội (Lần 4)