Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án – Tin Tức Giáo Dục Học Tập Tiny https://quatangtiny.com Shop chia sẽ Tài Liệu Học tập Miễn Phí cho các bạn độc giả có cái nhìn hay và tổng quan về các tính năng sản phẩm độc đáo Wed, 28 Oct 2020 16:50:52 +0000 vi hourly 1 https://wordpress.org/?v=5.9.9 https://quatangtiny.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/10/cropped-icon-Qua-1-32x32.png Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án – Tin Tức Giáo Dục Học Tập Tiny https://quatangtiny.com 32 32 Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh trường THPT Quốc học Huế năm học 2016 – 2017 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-truong-thpt-quoc-hoc-hue-nam-hoc-2016-2017-co-dap-an-33273 https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-truong-thpt-quoc-hoc-hue-nam-hoc-2016-2017-co-dap-an-33273#comments Fri, 23 Oct 2020 18:48:27 +0000 https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-truong-thpt-quoc-hoc-hue-nam-hoc-2016-2017-co-dap-an-33273

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Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh trường THPT Quốc học Huế năm học 2016 – 2017 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN, Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh trường THPT Quốc học Huế năm học

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án

Kỳ thi vào lớp 10 đang đến gần, để các bạn học sinh lớp 9 có hướng ôn luyện và làm quen với các dạng bài tập của môn Tiếng Anh, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin gửi đến các bạn Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh trường THPT Quốc học Huế năm học 2016 – 2017. Đề thi có đáp án đi kèm sẽ giúp các bạn dễ dàng ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức của môn Tiếng Anh. Chúc các bạn ôn tập tốt và đạt điểm số cao trong kỳ thi vào lớp 10 sắp tới.

Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Ngữ văn năm học 2017 – 2018

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Toán trường THCS Nam Đà, Hải Phòng năm học 2017 – 2018 (Lần 1)

PHÒNG GD&ĐT Tỉnh
Thừa Thiên Huế

ĐỀ THI THỬ VÀO LỚP 10 Quốc Học Huế THPT
NĂM HỌC 2016-2017

LẦN 2 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian 60 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

Part A: Multiple choice (8 points)

I/ Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.

1. A. stays B. plays C. says D. days

2. A. plumber B. website C. public D. label

II/ Choose the word in each group that has different stress pattern from the others.

1. A. garden

B. beauty

C. standard

D. ago

2. A. access

3. A. computer

B. amount

B memory

C. purpose

C. serious

D. campus

D. special

III/ Choose the best word or phrase to complete the following sentences.

6. I ______ stamps since 2008.

A. have collect

B. am collecting

C. has collected

D. have collected

7. She suggests ______ garbage bins around the school yard.

A. puting

B. to put

C. putting

D. to putting

8. I will lend you my bike if you ______ it back before Friday.

A. bring

B. brought

C. will bring

D. were bringing

9. Ann is too busy these days. She has ______ free time to talk to you.

A. a little

B. little

C. few

D. a few

10. He will be in Singapore from Monday ______ Thursday.

A. on

B. to

C. and

D. in

11. He spoke _________ in order to make them ______ to understand.

A. slow/easily

B. slowly/ easily

C. slowly/easy

D. slow/ easy

12. The police must try to catch the men most of ______ drive dangerously.

A. which

B. who

C. whom

D. where

13. He grew up very quickly and soon he was ______ his brother.

A. more heavier

B. so heavy than

C. too heavy than

D. as heavy as

14. These students often come to see their friends on Sunday, ______?

A. do these

B. are they

C. don’t they

D.don’t students

15. The Smiths are not responsible parents. They don’t ______ their children very well.

A. look after

B. take after

C. take care of

D. both A and C

16. She asked me if I ________ to school by bicycle every day.

A. am going B. to go C. was going D. went

17. All the houses in the area _________ immediately.

A. need to rebuild B. need to be rebuilt C. needs rebuilding D. both B and C

18. Nga is hungry ______ she hasn’t eaten all day.

A. though

B. or

C. so

D. because

19. _______ the bad weather, the soccer match was not cancelled.

A. because

B. despite

C. because of

D. though

20. Mr. Pike: “John, you’ve written a much better essay this time.” – John: “______”

A. Writing? Why? B.Thank you. It’s really encouraging.

C.You’re welcome. D. Forget it.

V/ Choose the word that best fits the blank in the following passage.

It’s important (26) ________ well, especially when you’re students. If you are at (27)_________, you may go home for lunch, and have a cooked meal of (28)__________or fish and vegetables. Or perhaps you take some food with you to school, and eat it in the lunch (29) _____. A chicken and lettuce sandwich, with some fresh (30) __________, would be a light but healthy lunch. Many people around the world eat plain, (31)___________rice two or three times a day. Pupils and (32) ______ often don’t eat well when they’re (33) ______for an exam – they eat chocolate and drink lots of black coffee! And by the way, doctors say everybody should start the day with a healthy (34) _________. It’s also good for you to drink a lot of water right through the day.

26. A. eats

B. to eat

C. eating

D. have eaten

27. A. school

B. primary

C. office

D. class

28. A. cheese

B. meat

C. fruit

D. seafood

29.A.timetable

B. classroom

C. lesson

D. break

30. A. lemons

B. fruit

C. chicken

D. peas

31. A. boiled

B. baked

C. grilled

D. roast

32. A. teachers

B. professors

C. students

D. boys

33.A.review

B. reading

C. learn

D. revising

34. A. dinner

B. breakfast

C. lunch

D. supper

VI/ Read the following passage then answer the questions.

Litter on Mount Everest

Mount Everest is the highest mountain in the world. It is also the highest trash pile in the world. About 400 people try to reach the top every year. Having many climbers means a lot of trash.

It is very dangerous to climb Mt. Everest. The air is very thin and cold. Most people carry bottles of oxygen; they could die without it. When the oxygen bottles are empty, people throw them on the ground. When strong winds rip their tents, people leave them behind. They don’t have the energy to take the trash away. They only have enough energy to go down the mountain safely.

Trash is a terrible problem. Since people first began to climb Mt. Everest, they have left 50,000 kilos of trash on the mountain. Several groups have climbed the mountain just to pick up the trash. When people plan to climb the mountain, they have to plan to take away their trash.

35. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Wind on the mountain

B. A problem with trash

C. A dangerous mountain

D. Climbing safely

36. Where do climbers put their empty oxygen bottles?

A. On the ground B. In trash cans C. On their back D. In their tents

37. Why do climbers leave their trash on the mountain?

A. Special groups will pick it up.

B. The wind will blow it away.

C. They don’t have the energy to take it away.

D. Other climbers will use it later.

38. How much trash has been left on the mountain?

A. Four hundred kilos B. Four thousand kilos

C. Five thousand kilos D. Fifty thousand kilos

39. Why do climbers on Mount Everest carry bottles of oxygen?

A. The weather is not cold.

B. Climbing makes them tired.

C. The air is very thin.

D. They are thirsty.

40. In line 6, the sentence: “people leave them behind”, what does the word them refer to?

A. Tents B. Oxygen bottles C. Strong winds D. Other climbers

Part B: Writing (2points)

I/ Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.

1. “Good morning! How are you today?” she said to me.

-> She ________________________________________________

2. The servant prepared dinner as soon as we arrived.

->We had______________________________________________

3. Hung studies the best in our class.

-> No one______________________________________________

4. The accident happened yesterday.

->The accident took _____________________________________

5. I have many English books. Some of them are very interesting.

-> I have many _________________________________________

II/ Write a paragraph of 100- 120 words about the argument that “secondary school students should wear uniforms when they are at school”.

———— THE END ————

Đáp án đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh

1C 2A 3D 4B
5A 6D 7C 8A
9B 10B 11C 12C
13D 14C 15D 16D
17B 18D 19B 20B
21B 22B 23C 24A
25D 26B 27A 28B
29D 30A 31A 32C
33D 34B 35B 36A
37C 38D 39C 40A

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Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh học trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Huệ, Hà Nội (Lần 1) CÓ ĐÁP ÁN https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-hoc-truong-thpt-chuyen-nguyen-hue-ha-noi-lan-1-co-dap-an-33276 https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-hoc-truong-thpt-chuyen-nguyen-hue-ha-noi-lan-1-co-dap-an-33276#respond Fri, 23 Oct 2020 18:48:25 +0000 https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-hoc-truong-thpt-chuyen-nguyen-hue-ha-noi-lan-1-co-dap-an-33276

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Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh học trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Huệ, Hà Nội (Lần 1) CÓ ĐÁP ÁN, Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh học trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh

Kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 đang đến gần, với mong muốn cung cấp nhiều tài liệu tham khảo và ôn tập hữu ích dành cho các bạn học sinh, Downlaod.com.vn xin gửi đến các bạn Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh học trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Huệ, Hà Nội (Lần 1). Tài liệu này nhằm định hướng ôn luyện và củng cố kiến thức môn Tiếng Anh cho các bạn học sinh đang chuẩn bị bước vào kỳ thi vào lớp 10.

Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh Chuyên trường THPT Hà Nội – Amsterdam năm học 2016 – 2017

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh trường THPT Quốc học Huế năm học 2016 – 2017 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HUỆ

ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 1

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN

NĂM HỌC 2016 – 2017

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (Phổ thông)

Ngày thi: 26 tháng 02 năm 2017

Thời gian làm bài 120 phút

Questions 1-5: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in each group by circling A, B, C or D and then write your answers in the box below.

1. A. condition

B. option

C. suggestion

D. relation

2. A. weather

B. healthy

C. although

D. breathe

3. A. meeting

B. seen

C. cheer

D. been

4. A. happened

B. crossed

C. followed

D. fluttered

5. A. pays

B. lays

C. stays

D. says

Questions 6-10: Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others by circling A, B, C or D and then write your answers in the box below.

6. A. application

B. certificate

C. biology

D. security

7. A. university

B. punctuality

C. agricultural

D. mathematician

8. A. identify

B. secondary

C. luxuriously

D. majority

9. A. academic

B. engineering

C. available

D. sympathetic

10. A. obligatory

B. geographical

C. international

D. undergraduate

Questions 11-30: Choose the word or phrase which best completes these sentences or best replaced the underlined word(s) by circling A, B, C or D and then write your answers in the box below.

11. As the earth turns, half of the planet_________ the sun, and the other half faces away.

A. meets B. likes C. enters D. faces

12. That restaurant is ________ dirty that few people eat in it.

A. so B. such C. very D. too

13. You dislike playing basketball and table tennis,________?

A. don’t you B. do you C. won’t you D. will you

14. That was a __________- ceremony.

A. prepared-well B. well-prepared C. prepare-well D. well-prepare

15. “How wide is this street?” “–___. “

A. It’s 20 meters wide B. It’s wide 20 meters

C. It’s 20 meters in wide D. It’s in wide 20 meters

16. At the _____________- to the village stands a big old banyan tree.

A. entrance B. enter C. fence D. hedge

17. I suggest he _________________- money to buy a new car.

B. save B. saves C. saved D. saving

17. –”I’m taking my first exam next week”. – ” “.

A. Cheers B. Good luck C. Well done D. Congratulations

18. I’m not accustomed _________ up so early.

A. to getting B. to get C. by getting D. get

19. I wish I _______________ work tomorrow.

A. won’t have to B. don’t have to C. didn’t have to D. needn’t

20. It’s necessary that every student of our class _ hard.

A. study B. studying C. to study D. studies

21. My teacher arrived after I ___________ for her ten minutes.

A. waiting B. was waiting C. had waited D. have waited

22. – “What a lovely house you have!” – ” “.

A. Of course not, it’s not costly B. I think so

C. Thank you. Hope you will drop in D. No problem

23. Remember ____________ the door before going to bed.

A. locking B. to lock C. locked D. not locking

24. Some of my friends are taking extra classes in English_____________ become tourist guides.

A. so that B. so as C. in order that D. so as to

25. There are a lot of people at my friend’s wedding party, only a few of _ I had met before.

A. who B. whose C. whom D. which

26. You should have known that Anne could not keep a secret. Never again ___________ her anything.

A. will tell B. I tell C. will I tell D. I will tell

27. This is the first time I ____________ this Shakespeare’s novel.

A. read B. have read C. reading D. to read

28. They didn’t understand the matter, __________________, they didn’t ask for help.

A. but B. however C. moreover D. and

29. Do you know________?

A. what it was wrong B. what was it wrong C. what wrong it was D. what’s wrong with it

Questions 31-40: Use the verbs in brackets in the correct tense or form. Write your answer in the box below.

30. His sister (give) a car for her twentieth birthday next year.

31. I (read) the book you lent me, so you can have it back now.

32. He (elect) president of the football club at their last meeting.

33. My room (not clean) yet.

34. The house was very quiet when I got home. Everybody (go) to bed.

35. Many books (write) about the Second World War.

36. The name of the new town (choose) by the committee tomorrow.

37. Present day problems demand that we (be) ready for any emergency.

38. You (not go) there because he did not expect you.

39. You (walk) too fast. That’s why you are tired.

Questions 41-46: Use the correct form of the word in brackets. Write your answer in the box below.

40. The ___________ of the new system will take several days. (INSTALL)

41. This type of behaviour is no longer _________ acceptable. (SOCIETY)

42. Teachers must keep a record of students’ ___________. (ATTEND)

43. Our school set up a project to _____________ the library system. (COMPUTER)

44. Watching television can be very _. (EDUCATION)

45. He works for UNESCO in a purely ____________ role. (ADVICE)

Questions 47-55: Choose the correct preposition or particle to complete each sentence. Write your answer in the box below.

46. _________________ behalf of the department I would like to thank you all.

47. They were refused entrance ______________ the exhibition.

48. He graduated ___________ York with a degree in Psychology.

49. We had an argument ______________ the waiter about the bill.

50. She complimented him _____________- his exellent German.

51. She sacrificed everything _______________ her children.

52. Sit down and make yourself ________________ home.

53. He works away ________________ home during the week.

54. The searchers spread _________________ to over the area faster.

Questions 56-65: Choose the word which best fits each gap of the passage by circling A, B, C or D and then write your answers in the box below.

Dolphins communicate mainly by (56) of sounds. These sounds not only (57) whistles, but also so-called pulsed sounds, which are often described as squawks, barks, rasps, etc. However, they also use breaching (jumping and falling back into the (58) with a loud splash) and pectoral fin (or flipper) and tail (or fluke) slaps (hitting the flipper or fluke on the water surface). Body posturing and jaw popping also have a role in (59)___. As for language, we do not know (60) they have one. Several studies have demonstrated that dolphins can understand a structured language like (61)___. This has been demonstrated for a number of other animal species as well (gorilla, California sea lion, and parrot). Some studies also indicate that dolphins’ vocalizations are complex (62) to support some form of language. (63)____, it has not been demonstrated (64) that they can undoubtedly communicate (65) themselves.

55. A. way B. mean C. using D. means

56. A. have B. include C. contain D. combine

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Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 2, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin gửi đến các bạn học sinh đang chuẩn bị bước vào kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018

Kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 đang đến gần, với mong muốn cung cấp nhiều tài liệu tham khảo định hướng ôn luyện cho các bạn học sinh, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin gửi đến các bạn Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 có đáp án – Số 2.Hi vọng, bộ tài liệu này sẽ giúp ích nhiều trong việc ôn tập môn Tiếng Anh chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi vào lớp 10 của các bạn học sinh.

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh học trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Huệ, Hà Nội (Lần 1) CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Tổng hợp 100 đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh

I. Pronunciation

A. Circle the word underlined part is pronounced differently from that of. (1.0 point)

1. A. mention B. option C. federation D. question

2. A. ghost B. office C. long D. modern

3. A. waited B. mended C. objected D. faced

B. Find the word A, B, C, or D which has different stress pattern in line

A. energy B. plentiful C. disappear D. celebrate

A. recycle B. description C. contribute D. atmosphere

II. Circle the best answer to complete each of the following questions. (3.0 points)

1. The book ______ consists of four parts has been translated into Vietnamese.

A. which B. what C. who D. whose

2. My friend is fond of _______ to music in the evening.

A. listen B. listening C. to listen D. listened

3. My sister loves watching the stars………….. night.

A. on B. in C. at D. for

4. He was born ______ September 10th, 1996.

A. in B. on C. at D. from

5. Traveling by air is not cheap and it isn’t interesting ______.

A. either B. neither C. too D. also

6. “I suggest going to the beach on the weekends. ” “____________”.

A. That’s a fine day! B. That’s a good idea!

C. That’s a good trip! D. That’s a reason!

7. If I were you, I _______ to buy that car.

A. would forget B. will forget C. forget D. forgot

8. Lan studied hard, ______ she completed her exam successfully.

A. although B. so C. because D. since

9. “I can’t find my wallet, Tom” – “Don’t worry. I’ll help you to ______ it”

A. look for B. take care of C. put on D. turn off

10. _______ he wasn’t invited, he went to the party.

A. Although B. Because C. So D. As

11. His house looks very large and beautiful. It is _________house.

A. a seven-room B. a seven-rooms C. seven room D. seven rooms

12. “What would you like to drink?” – “_________”.

A. Yes, please B. Milk, please C. No, thanks D. OK

13. Lan is very tired. _________, she has to finish her assignment before going to bed.

A. Although B. So C. Therefore D. However

14. Your sister works in a foreign company,………….. she?

A. isn’t B. didn’t C. wasn’t D. doesn’t

15. It’s very hot today. I wish I_________on the beach now.

A. am B. was C. were D. have been

III. Complete each sentence with appropriate forms of the verb in brackets (2.0 points)

1. Hung (1. know)………. a little English, so he (2. wish)………. he (3. can speak)……… it fluently.

2. When I entered his room, I (4. see)…………… him (5. sleep)…………….. in a chair

3. My sister is on her summer holiday. She (6. lie)……………… on the beach at the moment.

4. If I (7. be)…………….. you, I would buy that house

5. I enjoy (8. teach)………….., and I (9. teach)……………………. for ten years.

6. I suggest (10. put)………………. garbage bins around the schoolyard.

IV. Read the passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions about it. (1.0 point)

Last year, we had a nice holiday. My friend and I went to the seaside for a month. I had been to the seaside several times before, but this was the first time for my friend. Naturally, it was a great event for him. Finally, the day came. It was a fine morning. We got up very early because we wanted to leave home after breakfast. We made the journey by car. We reached the seaside at noon. We spent many hours on the beach. We enjoyed making castles and channels in the sand. People said we ought to spend at least a few weeks at the seaside. It we could stay longer, so much the better.

1. How long did the writer and his friend spend at the seaside?

A. A week B. A few weeks C. A month D. A few months

2. Who went to the seaside the first time?

A. The writer B. The writer and his friend

C. The writer’s family D. The writer’s friend

3. What was the weather like on the day they started their journey to the seaside?

A. It was bad B. It was rainy C. It was snowy D. It was nice

4. How did they travel to the seaside?

A. By car B. By train C. By bus D. By air

5. When did they reach the seaside?

A. At 8 o’clock B. At 12 o’clock C. At 4 p. m D. At 9 p. m

V. Choose the best word from the box to fill in each gap in the following passage. (1.0 point)

too

from

have

to live

destroying is

We are all slowly (1)… destroying………… the earth. The sea and the rivers are (2)……………… dirty to swim in. There (3)…………… so much smoke in the air that it is unhealthy (4)……………………. in many of the world’s cities. In one well- known city, for example, the gases (5)………… cars pollute the air so much that traffic policemen (6)………….. to wear oxygen masks.

VI. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (1.6 points)

1. “Do you like pop music?” he asked me.

-> He asked me if……………………………………………………………………

2. The flat’s very noisy, but we enjoy living there.

-> Even though………………………………………………………………

3. I am sorry that I can’t come to your party.

-> I wish I………………………………………………………………….

4. Mary is reading an English novel. It is interesting.

-> The English novel which……………………………………………

5. They were late for school because it rained heavily.

-> It rained……………………………………………………………………………………………….

6. Work hard or your parents will be unhappy.

If you……………………………………….

7. They grow rice in tropical countries

Rice is……………………………………

8. It takes Minh 2 hours to do his homework every day.

Minh spends…………………………………………………………….

VII: Complete each of the following sentences, using the words given. (0.4 point)

1. If/ I/ meet/ alien/ outer space/ I/ invite/ home/ talk.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. mom/ never/ travelled/ by/ air/ before.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 3 https://quatangtiny.com/bo-de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-nam-hoc-2017-2018-co-dap-an-so-3-33304 https://quatangtiny.com/bo-de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-nam-hoc-2017-2018-co-dap-an-so-3-33304#respond Fri, 23 Oct 2020 18:48:11 +0000 https://quatangtiny.com/bo-de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-nam-hoc-2017-2018-co-dap-an-so-3-33304

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Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 3, Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh dành cho các bạn học sinh lớp 9 đang chuẩn bị thi

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh

Với mong muốn cung cấp nhiều tài liệu ôn tập hữu ích dành cho các bạn học sinh đang chuẩn bị bước vào kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10. Downlaod.com.vn xin gửi đến các bạn Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018. Bộ đề thi có đáp án đi kèm theo từng đề sẽ giúp các bạn học sinh dễ dàng ôn tập và củng cố lại kiến thức của môn Tiếng anh để chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kỳ thi vào lớp 10 sắp tới.

Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 2

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh học trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Huệ, Hà Nội (Lần 1) CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh trường THPT Quốc học Huế năm học 2016 – 2017 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

ĐỀ SỐ 15

Name:………………………………………………….

I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (1 pt)

1. A. looked B. watched C. stopped D. carried

2. A. bath B. father C. theater D. health

3. A. study B. success C. surprise D. sugar

4. A. children B. charity C. charm D. champagne

5. A. danger B. angry C. language D. passage

II. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in each sentence. (2pts)

1. Someone………… tickets are free.

A. said me B. said me that C. told me D. told to me

2. When she lived in the countryside, she………………. in the river.

A. was swimming B. used to swim C. has swum D. is used to swimming

3. Saigon…………… more than three hundred years ago.

A. was built B. has been built C. was building D. built

4. It is nearly ten years………………. I saw her.

A. when B. since C. for D. while

5. Would you mind if I…………… a photo?

A. take B. took C. would take D. am going to take

6. Last week I…………… my children to the biggest zoo in town.

A. got B. brought C. fetch D. took

7. They said to me about the people and the places………. they saw in New York.

A. Which B. Who C. that D. whom

8. Are you proud……………. your country and its tradition?

A. about B. on C. of D. for

9. Do you collect stamps or other things?- Yes, I am a stamp…………………

A. collecting B. collector C. collect D. collection

10. I wish I……….. a new computer.

A. had B. had had C. have D. would have

III. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (2pts)

1. Mary spent hours (1. repair)…………………………….. her bike.

2. They advised him (2. not/ cross)…………………. the street aganist the red lights.

3. He and his sister (3. not/ meet)…………………… my friends since last Christmas

4. She (4. work)…………………………………… here since she left school?

5. Everyone (5. read) this novel, let us (6. discuss)………………………………… it.

6. I (7. know)………….. her for six years, when I met her, she (8. work)………………. in a Law office.

7. They’d rather (9. walk)……………………… than (10. go)…………………….. by car.

IV. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in the passage. (1,5pts)

For many people, traveling by plane is an exciting experience. Others, however, find the whole idea quite terrifying, (1)…………….. flying is no more dangerous (2)…………………. any other form of travel and some experts say it is considerably safer. It is known, however, that most accident occurs during taking off and landing when a (4)…………………. decisions are vitally important.

The people (5)…………. job it is to look after the passengers, the stewards and stewardnesses play an important part in helping passengers to (7)……………. safe and comfortable. Indeed for many passengers being taken such care of is all part of the total experience. No other form of travel involves waiting for people in quite the same (10)……………. , with food, drink, newspapers, magazins, music, and even video films.

1.

A. although

B. too

C. and

D. because

2.

A. as

B. than

C. then

D. with

3.

A. leader’s

B. chief’s

C. driver’s

D. pilot’s

4.

A. whose

B. which

C. their

D. that

5.

A.experience

B. rest

C. feel

D. lie

6.

A. way

B. kind

C. sort

D. part

V. Read the passage and choose the best answer for the questions. (1pt)

Every year people in many countries learn English. Some of them are young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school. Others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, on telivision, in the office or among their friends. Most people must work hard to learn English.

Why do all these people learn English? It’s not difficult to anwer this question. Many boys and girls learn English at school because it is one of their subjects. Many adults learn English because it is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies because some of their books are in English at the college or university. Other people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magezines in nglish.

1. According to the writer. English is learnt by……………

A. young children B. adults C. teenagers D. all are correct

2. In the line 2 of the second part, the word “it” refers to……….

A. country B. young childen C. English D. question

3. Where do many boys and girls learn English?

A. at home B. at school C. in evening classe D. in the office

4. Why do adults learn English?

A. Because they want to see movies in English B. Because they need it for their job.

C. Because they are foced to learn it D. Because it’s not difficult to learn.

5. What of the following is NOT mentioned in the passge?

A. Children like reading English newspapers B. People in many countries learn English

C. English is one subject in school. D. Some books are written in English.

VI. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same. (1,5pts)

1. They will have to change the date of the meeting again.

The date……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. “I am going to meet my father in front of the station”, said Huy.

Huy said that……………………………………………………………………….

3. Her mother can cook better than her.

She can’t…………………………………………………………………………

4. I don’t have a computer.

I wish……………………………………………………………………………….

5. I haven’t met him for two years.

It’s……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

VII. Use the words or phrases given to complete the sentences. (1pt)

1. There/ used/ be/ Church/ near/ post office/ my town.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

2. While/ I/ open/ letter/, phone/ ring

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

3. I/ be/ very pleased/ see/ Tom/ again/ after/ long time.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4. You/ look/ thinner. You/ lose/ weight?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. That/ my old house/ I/ born/ grew up.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Đáp án đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh (Đề số 15)

I. 1 điểm: 0,2/1 câu trả lời đúng.

1. D 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A

II. 2 điểm: 0,2/1 câu trả lời đúng.

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. A

5. B

6. D

7. C

8. C

9. B

10. A

III. 2 điểm: 0,2/1 câu trả lời đúng.

1. repairing 2. not to cross 3. haven’t met

4. Has she worked……. 5. reads 6. dicuss 7. have known

8. worked 9. walk 10. go

IV. 1,5 điểm: 0,25/1 câu trả lời đúng.

1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. A

V. 1điểm: 0,2/1 câu trả lời đúng.

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A

VI. 1,5 điểm: 0,3/1 câu trả lời đúng.

1. The date of the meeting will have to be changed again.

2. Huy said that he was going to meet his father in front of the station.

3. She can’t cook as well as her mother.

4. I wish I had a computer.

5. It’s two years since I last met him.

VII. 1 điểm: 0,2/1 câu trả lời đúng.

1. There used to be a Church near the post office in my town

2. While I was opening the letter, the phone rang

3. I am very pleased to see Tom again after a long time.

4. You look thinner. Have you losen weight?

5. That is my old house where I was born and grew up.

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Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 4, Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 có đáp án – Số 4 là tài liệu

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018

Kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 đang đến gần. Nhằm hỗ trợ các bạn học sinh lớp 9 những tài liệu ôn tập hữu ích, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin gửi đến các bạn Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018. Sau đây, mời các bạn cùng tham khảo nhé!

Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 2

Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 3

Name:………………………………………………….

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.

1. A. claimed B. warned C. occurred D. existed

2. A. health B. appear C. ready D. heavy

3. A. tidal B. sight C. mineral D. describe

4. A. though B. throw C. through D. thought

5. A. thunder B. erupt C. trust D. pull

II. Choose the best answer from the four options given to complete each sentence.

6. I can’t understand the French visitors. I wish I________French.

A. knew B. will know C. know D. have known

7. The church________about 100 years ago.

A. is built B. was built C. will be built D. has been built

8. People in Israel are going to celebrate their festival________is called Passover.

A. whose B. who C. which D. where

9. ________I was really tired, I couldn’t sleep.

A. Even though B. So C. Therefore D. Because of

10. Lan is very tired. ________, she has to finish herAssignment before going to bed.

A. Although B. So C. Therefore D. However

11. I suggest________some money for poor children.

A. raise B. to raise C. raised D. raising

12. She asked me if I________a laptop computer the following day.

A.buy B. will buy C. bought D. would buy

13. I ________telephone her if I knew her number.

A. would B. have to C. will D. shall

14. Honda motorbikes________in Viet Nam.

A. produce B. will produce

C. are produced D. would be produced

15. We have learnt English________2001.

A. for B. since C. in D. during

16. We________already________Huong Pagoda.

A. were/ seeing B. Have/ seen

C. are/ seeing D. Will/ see

17. All the houses in the area________immediately.

A. has to rebuilt B. had to rebuild

C. have to be rebuilt D. have to rebuild

18. If he________soon, he might miss the train.

A. isn’t coming B. doesn’t come

C. won’t come D. didn’t come

19. Mr. Long said that he________in Ho Chi Minh City.

A. lived B. is living C. has lived D. will live

20. Your sister works in a foreign company, ________she?

A. isn’t B. didn’t C. wasn’t D. doesn’t

IV. Choose the correct answer from the options below, then complete the following passage.

Today, supermarkets are found in almost every large city in the world. But the first supermarket (26)_________opened only fifty years ago. It was opened in New York by a man named Michael Cullen. A supermarket is different (27)___________other types of stores in several ways. In supermarkets, goods are placed on open shelves. The(28)__________ choose what they want and take them to the checkout counter. This means that fewer shop assistants are needed than in other stores. The way products are displayed is another difference between supermarkets and many other types of stores; (29)__________ example, in supermarkets, there is usually a display of small inexpensive items just in front of the checkout counter: candies, chocolates, magazines, cheap foods and so on. Most customers (30)__________go to a supermarket buy goods from a shopping list. They know exactly what they need to buy. They do the shopping according to a plan.

26. A. is B. has been C. was D. were

27. A. in B. from C. of D. with

28. A. customers B. managers C. assistants D. sellers

29. A. in B. for C. of D. by

30. A. who B. what C. which D. whom

V. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one.

31. They have just sold that old house.

=> That old house…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

32. In spite of the bad weather, they had a wonderful holiday.

=> Although…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

33. They will build a new mall here.

=> A new mall……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

34. Unless he takes these pills, he won’t be better.

=> If……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

35. Depite working hard, he can’t support his large family.

=> Although…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

VI. Complete each of the following sentences, using the words given.

36. If/ it/ not rain/ tomorrow/ I/ go/ camping/ my friends.

=>…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

37. If/ I/ meet/ alien/ outer space/ I/ invite/ home/ talk.

=>…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

38. I/ never/ travelled/ by/ air.

=>…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

39. The students/ study/ for exam/ now.

=>…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

40. It/ be/ such/ cold day/ we/ decide/ not/ go out.

=>…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

—————The end—————

Đáp án đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. D
11. D 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. D

21. B read => reading 22. B sing => sings 23. B spending => spend

24. C more than => than 25. B nature => natural

26. C 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. A

31. That old house has just been sold (by them).

32. Although the weather was bad, they had a wonderful holiday.

33. A new mall will be built here (by them).

34. If he does not take these pills, he won’t be better.

35. Although he works hard, he can’t support his large family.

36. If it does not rain tomorrow, I will go camping with my friends.

37. If I metAnAlien from outer space, I would invite him/ her/ it to my home and talk/ to talk.

38. I have never travelled by air.

39. The students are studying for their exam now.

40. It was such a cold day that we decided not to go out.

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Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 5 https://quatangtiny.com/bo-de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-nam-hoc-2017-2018-co-dap-an-so-5-33461 https://quatangtiny.com/bo-de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-nam-hoc-2017-2018-co-dap-an-so-5-33461#respond Fri, 23 Oct 2020 18:30:23 +0000 https://quatangtiny.com/bo-de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-nam-hoc-2017-2018-co-dap-an-so-5-33461

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Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 5, Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 (Số 5) tổng hợp các đề thi

Đề ôn thi vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh

Để hỗ trợ các bạn học sinh ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10. Tài Liệu Học Thi xin gửi đến các bạn Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm 2017 có đáp án. Hi vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp ích nhiều trong việc rèn luyện kỹ năng giải đề thi và giúp các bạn học sinh rút kinh nghiệm trong các bài thi sắp tới của mình. Chúc các bạn ôn tập tốt và đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi vào lớp 10 sắp tới.

Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 4

Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 3

Bộ đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 Có đáp án – Số 2

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 (Đề 19)

Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.

1. A. local B. control C. income D. remote

2. A. grocery B. tropical C. located D. logical

3. A. between B. engineer C. teeth D. greeting

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D that best completes each sentence.

4. How often….you…..sports? ~ Twice a week.

A. did – play B. do – play C. will – play D. had – played

5. How long……it…….you to go to work?

A. did – take B. does – took C. does – take D. has taken

6. Neither the teacher nor his students…….there since the beginning of the school year.

A. has been B. are C. have been D. were

7. The children enjoy……with their friends through the Internet.

A. to chat B. chat C. chatting D. to be chatting

8. They could sec the main part of the show……they came to it late due to the traffic jam.

A. because B. although C. despite D. however

9. Have you ever been to Dalat? I remember……to the city by my parents when I was young.

A. taking B. to take C. to be taken D. being taken

10. If I won the first prize. I…….a new car.

A. will buy B. had bought C. would buy D. would have bought

11. ……the radio if you’re not listening.

A. Turn up B. Turn in C. Turn off D. Turn out

12. That doctor devoted his life……saving the lives of patients.

A. for B. to C. with D. from

13. A: Would you mind waiting for me a moment?

B: …….I still have a lot of free time.

A. No, I wouldn’t. B. No, I would C. Yes, I wouldn’t D. Yes. I would

Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C, or D that best fìts each blank space in the following passage.

Camping is an activity in which people live temporarily in the outdoors. Campers (14)……in fishing, hunting, swimming, plant study, wildlife watching, and nature photography. It provides phvsical benefits when it involves hiking around a campsite, and many people believe that camping (15)……youngsters led more confident.

People throughout the world enjoy hiking to wildiiess campsites. This activity is called backpacking (16)……it involves carrying such essential camping gear as (17)……tent, food, clothing and sleeping bag on the back in a bag (18)……a backpack. Backpacking is best suited for (19)……who are in good physical conditions as it may require walking several miles.

The key to any enjoyable camping trip is planning. A decision (20)……where to camp depends on personal preference, but planning the trip before leaving helps campers (21)……preventable accidents. Many situations, such as bad weather, injury, or a crowded campsite, are less alarming if campers are prepared.

14. A. participate B. take parts C. take place D. enter

15. A. enables B. allows C. makes D. causes

16. A. owing to B. on account of C. due to D. because

17. A. the B. a C. an D. some

18. A. called B. mentioned C. told D. known

19. A. anyone B. those C. someone D. everyone

20. A. for B about C. on D. B and C

21. A. stop B. cease C. meet D. avoid

Choose the underlined part among A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.

22. My parents offered giving me a motorbike after I had passed the final exam.

A. giving B. me C. had passed D. the

23. It was kind of him to help me solving the problem.

A. of B. to help C. solving D. the

24. Ben’s boss doesn’t want him having tlie habit of using the office phone for personal calls.

A. doesn’t B. having C. using D. for personal calls

Use the correct form of the word given to complete each sentence.

25. I’m going to have a(n)…….with the manager. (appoint)

26. Her latest…….surprised us. (perform)

27. There has been a rapid……in the number of private schools in our country recently. (grow)

28. They speak English very…….. . (nature)

Read the following passage carefully, then write True (T) or False (F) for each statement.

Michael Jackson was bornin Indiana, the United States on 29th August 1958. He is the son of Kathy Jackson, a clarinetist and Joe Jackson, a guitarist. Michael is one of nine children, six boys and three girls. His parents taught all of the children to play musical instruments and they formed a group, the Jackson Five.

They won several talents contests between 1967 and 1969, and became famous in the Chicago area.

They were seen by Diana Ross in 1969 and she took them to her record company, Motown Records in Detroit. Their first album was called Diana Ross Presents the Jackson Five. During 1970 the group had four Number One records in quick succession.
Michael met the producer Quincy Jones, who had written the music for many films and TV series. Jones produced Michael’s solo album ‘Off the Wall’ in 1979. It was the best seller and four tracks from tile album were top ten hits.

29. ……Michael Jackson was born in a family following the art career.

30. ……He formed the group, The Jackson Five, with his best friends.

31. ……During 1970 the group had four Number One records with a quick success.

32. ……Michael’s solo album ‘Off the Wall’ in 1979 soon became the best seller.

Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meanings.

33. He hasn’t played basketball for 6 months.

The last time…………………………………….. .

34. She is a more careful driver than her brother.

Her brother drives…………………………….. .

35. I find it difficult to find a better solution to that problem.

I have…………………………………………….. .

36. He is such a slow speaker that we get bored.

He speaks………………………………………. .

Đáp án đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh

1. C 2. A 3. B 4, B 5. C 6. C 7. C

8. B 9. D 10. C 11. C 12. 13 13. A 14. A

15. C 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. D 21. D

22. A (giving — to give)

23. C (solving — to solve)

24. B (having — to have)

25. appointment 26. performance 27. growth 28. naturally

29. True 30. False 31. False 32. True

33. The last time he played basketball was 6 months ago.

34. Her brother drives less carefully than her / she does.

35. I have difficulty (in) finding a better solution to that problem.

36. He speaks so slowly that we get bored..

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Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-tuyen-sinh-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-nam-hoc-2017-2018-33509 https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-tuyen-sinh-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-nam-hoc-2017-2018-33509#respond Fri, 23 Oct 2020 18:22:41 +0000 https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-tuyen-sinh-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-nam-hoc-2017-2018-33509

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Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018, Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 là tài liệu ôn thi vào lớp 10, nhằm

Đề ôn thi vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh

Đề thi vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2017 – 2018 được Tài Liệu Học Thi sưu tầm nhằm gửi đến các bạn học sinh để giúp các bạn làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi và củng cố lại kiến thức của môn tiếng Anh. Hi vọng tài liệu này sẽ là hành trang hữu ích giúp các bạn chinh phục kỳ thì tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 đạt kết quả cao nhất.

Đề thi vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh tỉnh Kiên Giang năm học 2017 – 2018

KÌ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10

TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2017

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không tính thời gian giao đề)

Đề thi có 04 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trên đề thi.

Hội đồng thi: ……………………………………………… Phòng thi: ………………

Họ, tên thí sinh: ………………………………………………….. Số báo danh: …………..

Sinh ngày: …… /….. /…… Học sinh trường THCS: …………………………………

Họ, tên và chữ ký: – Giám thị 1: …………………………………………

– Giám thị 2: …………………………………………

I. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each of the following sentences or do as directed. (2.0 pts)

1. I often go to school _________ foot.

A. by B. to C. on D. with

2. They are keen ________ football. They often play football on Saturday and Sunday afternoons.

A. at B. of C. on D. in

3. On Saturday, there is a meeting _________ 10.30 a.m. to 11.15 a.m.

A. from B. between C. at D. in

4. – “That’s an excellent drawing, Lan.” – “…………………………………. .”

A. Well done B. I’m sorry C. That’s very kind of you to say so D. That’s a good idea

5. These students have taken part in charity activities in their town, ………………….?

A. do they B. don’t they C. have they D. haven’t they

6. She _________ me what my name was.

A. said B. told C. spoke D. asked

7. He spends a lot of time _____________ the website.

A. surf B. surfing C. to surf D. surfs

8. The children are looking forward _________ on a trip to Ha Long Bay.

A. to go B. going C. to going D. to be going

9. The examination is coming near. I think you _______ play games any more.

A. shouldn’t B. needn’t C. should D. can

10. Young generation likes wearing jeans because they do not___________ easily.

A. wear in B. wear on C. wear out D. wear off

11. Mary is _________ than her sister.

A. more busy B. the busier C. busiest D.busier

12. Our teachers feel _______ that all of us will pass the entrance examination.

A. bored B. hopeful C. sorry D. disappointed

13. They are the places _________ we visited last summer vacation.

A. which B. when C. in which D. where

14. Life in the country is boring, _______ my grandparents like to live there.

A. because B. so C. although D. however

15. Choose the word with the different stress pattern.

A. weather B. father C. teacher D. canoe

16. Da Nang International Fireworks Competition___________ every two years.

A. helds B. is held C. to hold D. was held

II. There is ONE mistake in each sentence. Pick it out and correct it. (1.0 pt)

Example: Jane is listening for music on the radio. for →to

1. She is beautiful dressed today. ……………→ …………..

2. He spent an hour to do this test. ……………→ …………..

3. A number of children is playing outside. ……………→ …………..

4. People are not allowed smoking here. ……………→ ……………..

III. Supply the correct form of the word in parentheses to complete each of the following sentences. (1.5 pts)

1. We decorated the house ……………………… . (attraction)

2. It is ……………………… to phone someone at night. (convenience)

3. He is one of the most energetic ……………………….. . (active)

4. We felt …………………… after the long trip. (exhaust)

5. It was ……………… of you to leave the door open! (care)

6. He takes ……………………. from the beauty of the nature. (inspire)

IV. Complete each sentence with the correct tense of one suitable verb from the box. (1pt)

1. I will phone you when she ……………………….. here tomorrow.

2. My family ………………NhaTrang several times.

3. Her mother …………………………. the dishes while her father was sweeping the floor yesterday afternoon.

4. It’s so annoying. My younger brother ………..always…………his homework.

V. Read the text and do the task as directed. (1.5 pts)

All early television was broadcast in black and white. Color television was possible, but it was too complicated and of very poor quality until the middle of the 1950s. Color television broadcasts began in the United States in 1954, in Japan in 1960, and in Europe in 1967.

The first landing on the moon was broadcast live on television in 1969, and now television programs are transmitted all over the world immediately through the system of satellites that transmit the signals from the earth, through space, and back to the earth. More people now get their news and information through television than through newspapers and radio. The development of television is one of the most rapid and exciting events of our century.

True (T), False (F) or No information (NF)?

1. Television used to be broadcast white and black._____

2. Color television began in Asia in 1969._____

3. Color television broadcasts began in the United States before 1954.____

4. The first landing on the moon was broadcast live on television in 1969.____

5.Thanks to the satellites,TVprograms are transmitted around the world immediately.____

6. Fewer people now get their news and information through television than through newspapers and radio. ___

VI. Read the following text and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. (1.5 pts)

Hi everyone,

I’ve been in Paris for over a week now and I’m having a great excursion In the first few days I did quite a lot of (1)……………: the Eiffel Tower, Notre Dame. and all the usual tourist attractions. Most places are absolutely (2) ………. with tourists, so yesterday I decided to have a look round the shops.

Today I’ve been to a couple of interesting art (3) ……….. I got lost on my way back to the hotel, but it didn’t matter because I discovered a really fascinating market with lots of little stalls, selling just about everything from apples to antiques.

I ate in the hotel the first night but usually I (4) …………….for dinner – the restaurants are great and I can get a set meal for less than 25 euros. I’m afraid I’ve (5) ………. a lot of money, but it’s a great place. You’ll be able to see for yourself (6)………. I get back – I’ve taken lots of photos. .

I hope you’re all well. I’ll write again next week.

Love,

1. a. viewing b. sightseeing c. looking d. landscape

2. a. took b. stayed c. packed d. full

3. a. exhibits b. castles c. concerts d. galleries

4. a. go out b. leave c. call d. stay in

5. a. paid b. spent c. lost d. gotten

6. a. until b. while c. after d. when

VII. Complete each of the following sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original sentence. (1.5 pts)

1. I would like you to close the window.

Would you mind …………………………………………………………………………..?

2. They don’t have much time for revising the lessons because they chat too much.

If they didn’t …………………………………………………………………………………. .

3. Despite trying a lot, he didn’t pass the last exam.

Although ……………………………………………………………………………………. .

4. It is over 10 years since his grandfather died.

His grandfather ……………………………………………………………………………… .

The End

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Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 chuyên Anh năm học 2018-2019 (Có đáp án) https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-chuyen-anh-nam-hoc-2018-2019-37222 https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-chuyen-anh-nam-hoc-2018-2019-37222#respond Fri, 23 Oct 2020 16:15:19 +0000 https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-chuyen-anh-nam-hoc-2018-2019-37222

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Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 chuyên Anh năm học 2018-2019 (Có đáp án), Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 chuyên Anh năm học 2018-2019 có đáp án chi tiết kèm theo là tài liệu ôn thi

Nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh ôn tập và chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kỳ thi vào lớp 10 sắp tới, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin giới thiệu đến các bạn Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 chuyên Anh năm học 2018-2019 có đáp án chi tiết kèm theo. Hi vọng, đề thi này sẽ giúp các bạn luyện tập và làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi môn Toán. Chúc các bạn ôn tập tốt và thi đạt kết quả cao!

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

(Đề thi gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI VÀO LỚP 10 CHUYÊN ANH
CẤP TỈNH LỚP 9 NĂM 2018 – 2019

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)

Part 1. You will hear a man, David, being interviewed about his life as a professional footballer, for each question, put a tick in the correct box.

1. How long has David been a professional football play?

A. One match B. Two years C. four years

2. What is in a normal day for David?

A. Fitness training and tactics.

B. fitness training and a full match.

C. Fitness, training tactics and a full match.

3. What do the team not watch videos about?

A. The opposition. B. Warming up. C. Their own performance.

4. What does David say about the diet of a footballer?

A. it is often unpleasant and bad.

B. It has lots of rice, meat and pasta.

C. Footballers have to be careful about what they eat.

5. What is true about David’s free time?

A. He spends most of his free time with his friends

B. He has very little free time, except in the summer.

C. He usually does not manage to see his family.

6. What does David say about his future ambitions?

A. He firstly wants to secure a regular place in the team.

B. He wants to play for a European team in the next two years.

C. He never thinks about playing in the World Cup.

Part 2. You will hear a woman talking on the radio about fours of historic houses in the south of England, for each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

HISTORIC TOURS

South Elmharn House.

Built: (7) …………………..……… century by the bishops of Norwich

Improved: 16th century by a group of rich (8) …………………..………

Features: many old, valuable, wall paintings.

Remains of a small Norman (9) …………………..………

Tours: Including a walk 2 p.m £ 12. tea / coffee, meal bookable.

Haughley Hall

Built: 14th century outside ruined castle

Improved: 18th century.

Features: Once owned by (10) …………………..……… II, currently owned by a Lord.

Secret (11) …………………..……… in the walls

Two tunnels now closed

Tours 11.30 or 2 p.m £ with traditional (12) …………………..………, £ 12 with tea. Group

welcome.

Bedfield House

Built: (13) …………………..………century by the church.

Improved: Mid 15th century.

Features Signs that protect against witchcraft are on (14) …………………..………and surfaces.

Gardens are joins by (15) …………………..………

Tours: 10.30 a.m or 2.30 p.m, £13.50 with tea/coffee and cakes. Groups welcome.

SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)

Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points – 0.15/ each)

Choose the best answer to each question.

16. I’m expecting to have this book__________ soon this year.

A. published B. publishing C. to publish D. publish

17. ________ your advice, I was able to avoid lots of trouble on my trip abroad.

A. Thanks to B. Despite C . Even though D. Instead of

18. We have a party tonight and Daisy is worried about ________.

A. what to wear B. which wearing C . that she wears D. these wearing

19. As a rule, new comers ________ a party at the end of the first month of their stay.

A. was held B. hold C. have held D. will hold

20. The most interesting films ________ for the festival will be shown next week.

A. are chosen B. having chosen C. chosen D. being chosen

21. However ________ about the results, the children still talk merrily.

A. disappointed are they B. disappointing they are

C. disappointment D. disappointed they are

22. A child ________ to talk does not learn by being corrected all the time.

A. learned B. learns C. learning D. to learn

23. Some businesses use famous cartoon ________ to advertise their products.

A. person B. people C. characters D. samples

24. The first thing you should do when you lose your bank card is to call your bank and ask them to close your ________.

A. account B. house C. loan D. debt

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Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 chuyên Anh năm học 2018-2019 Sở GD&ĐT Bình Phước, Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 chuyên Anh năm học 2018-2019 Sở GD&ĐT Bình Phước có đáp án chi tiết

Nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh ôn tập và chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kỳ thi vào lớp 10 sắp tới, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin giới thiệu đến các bạn Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 chuyên Anh năm học 2018-2019 Sở GD&ĐT Bình Phước có đáp án chi tiết kèm theo. Hi vọng, đề thi này sẽ giúp các bạn luyện tập và làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi môn tiếng Anh. Chúc các bạn ôn tập tốt và thi đạt kết quả cao.

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

BÌNH PHƯỚC

ĐỀ THI SỐ 01

(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019

ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếng Anh (Chuyên)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: ……………../2018

Họ và tên thí sinh:………………………………………………………số báo danh:………………..

Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào phiếu trả lời (có phát kèm theo đề)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

– Trước khi bắt đầu mỗi phần thí sinh có 20 giây để đọc đề.

– Sau mỗi phần thí sinh có 1 phút để kiểm tra đáp án,

– Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗ iphần nghe 2 lần

A. LISTENING (1 pt)

Part 1: You will hear an interview with a teenager called Amy Manero, w ho is talking about her interest in music, particularly jazz piano. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C.

1. When did Amy have lessons with a piano teacher?

A. at the age of four.

B. before she started secondary school.

C. after getting advice from her school music teacher.

2. How did Amy feel at her first big public event?

A. excited because she was wearing a wonderful costume.

B. nervous because it was her first time on stage.

C. surprised because the audience was very big.

3. What does Amy say about playing jazz with the school band?

A. She was better at it than the rest of the players.

B. She put lots of effort into learning about it.

C. She enjoyed it as soon as she started.

4. Amy gives piano lessons so that she can _______.

A. help people who couldn’t normally afford them .

B. encourage lots of young people to play the piano.

C. improve her own playing technique.

5. Why does Amy write a blog on the internet?

A. to get some experience for becoming a journalist.

B. to tell people about her daily life as a musician.

C. to recommend events for people to go to.

Part 2. You will hear a boy called Adam telling his class about a hot air balloon flight he went on. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

ADAM’S HOT AIR BALLOON FLIGHT

6. The flight in the balloon lasted for …………………………….. .

7. Adam could see as far as the …………………………….. from the balloon.

8. Adam didn’t recognize a local …………………………….. from the air.

Adam was surprised that it was warm in the balloon basket.

9. Adam didn’t like having to …………………………….. in the basket.

10. The balloon finally landed on a ………………………………

I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)

PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each o f the following questions.

11. A. imagine B. valentine C. discipline D . magazine

12. A. dictation B. station C. repetition D. question

Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that o f the rest in each of the following questions.

13. A. minority B. priority C. necessary D. facility

14. A. delicious B. generous C. confidence D. energy

15. A. unidentified B. imagination C. disappointed D. interactive

PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following exchanges.

16. Daisy: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” – Mary: “_______”

A. Thank you very much! I am afraid. B. You are telling a lie.

C. Thank you for your compliment! D. I don’t like your sayings.

17. Dick: “Sorry, Brian is not here.” – Peter: “_________”

A. Would you like to leave a message? B. Can I take a message then?

C. Can I speak to Brian, please? . D. Can I leave a message then?

18. Susan: “Tom says he doesn’t like you!” – Lucy: “ _________”

A. It makes nothing B. So do I C. I know he isn’t D. I don’t care

19. Tom: “May I smoke?” Jerry: “________”

A. What suits you? B. You are free

C. Accommodate yourself! D. Go ahead!

20. Laura: “What a lovely house you have!” – Maria: “_________”.

A. Of course not, it ‘s not costly B . Thank you. Hope you will drop in

C. I think so D. No problem

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Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2018-2019 sở GD&SĐT Bắc Giang https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-so-gd-sdt-bac-giang-37692 https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-so-gd-sdt-bac-giang-37692#respond Fri, 23 Oct 2020 15:47:30 +0000 https://quatangtiny.com/de-thi-thu-vao-lop-10-mon-tieng-anh-so-gd-sdt-bac-giang-37692

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Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2018-2019 sở GD&SĐT Bắc Giang, Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2018-2019 sở GD&SĐT Bắc Giang là tài liệu

Nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh ôn tập và chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kỳ thi vào lớp 10 sắp tới, Tài Liệu Học Thi xin giới thiệu đến các bạn Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm học 2018-2019 sở GD&SĐT Bắc Giang. Hi vọng, đề thi này sẽ giúp các bạn luyện tập và làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi môn tiếng Anh. Chúc các bạn ôn tập tốt và thi đạt kết quả cao!

Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh

ĐỀ THI THỬ

Ngày thi: 7/03/2018
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT

NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (1 pt)
1. A. nuclear B. consume C. dust D. reduce

2. A. arrived B. depended C. arranged D. changed

3. A. pleasure B. passage C. consist D. recess

4. A. label B. locate C. gather D. inspiration

Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______

II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (2 pts)

1. If you ______ your passport, you’ll be in trouble.

A. lost B. will lose C. would lose D. lose

2. The visitor asked me ______.

A. where is Bac Giang city B. where Bac Giang city were

C. where Bac Giang city was D. where was Bac Giang city

3. The air is polluted ______ there’s too much traffic.

A. however B. because C. therefore D. but

4. Our children felt ______ when Tet holiday was coming near.

A. excitement B. excited C . excitedly D. exciting

5. I stayed up late finishing my homework ______ I was really tired.

A. even though B. so C. therefore D. because of

6. All houses in our neighborhood ______ immediately after the storm .

A. has to rebuilt B. had to rebuild C. have to be rebuilt D. have to rebuild

7. – “ You look nice today. I like your new hair style.” _ “ _____________________”

A. It’s nice of you to say so B. Shall I? Thanks

C. Oh, well done D. I feel interesting to hear that

8. Don’t worry. I’ll look ______ your house and children while you’re away.

A. in B. on C. up D. after.

Your answers: 1_______ 3_______ 5_______ 7_______
2_______ 4_______ 6_______ 8_______

III. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in the brackets. (1pt)

1. The last time she (go) ______ to London was in October 2009.

2. They (not/finish) ______ homework yet.

3. I wish I (know) ______ the answer to this question.

Many students spend much time (play) ______ computer games.

…………

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