Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2017 môn Tiếng Anh sở GD&ĐT Vĩnh Phúc (Có đáp án)

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2017 môn Tiếng Anh

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2017 môn Tiếng Anh là tài liệu ôn thi THPT quốc gia 207 hữu ích dành cho các bạn học sinh lớp 12. Đề thi có đáp án đi kèm sẽ giúp các bạn kiểm tra và củng cố lại những kiến thức của môn Tiếng Anh. Chúc các bạn ôn tập tốt và thi đạt kết quả cao!

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường Đại học Ngoại Thương, Hà Nội Lần 6 – Có đáp án

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chuyên Lương Thế Vinh, Đồng Nai (Lần 2) CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Họ, tên thí sinh ………………………………………………………….. Số báo danh ……………….…..

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. allow B. tomorrow C. slowly D. below

Question 2: A. included B. wanted C. noticed D. decided

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. society B. elaborate C. incredible D. dedicate

Question 4: A. require B. digest C. reserve D. swallow

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Unlike the old one, this new copier can perform their functions in half the time.
A B C D

Question 6: Science with its invention and discoveries have revolutionized man’s life.
A B C D

Question 7: Building thousands of years ago, the ancient palace is popular with modern tourists.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions.

Question 8: Population explosion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to_________ the demand for food.

A. make B. need C. have D. meet

Question 9:_________ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in 10 years.

A. That the number of tigers B. The number of tigers

C. For a number of tigers D. A number of tigers

Question 10: This is the third time James_________ the volunteer program to the village.

A. has joined B. has been joining C. joined D. joins

Question 11: George won five medals at the competition. His parents__________ very proud of him.

A. shouldn’t have been

B. must have been

C. could have been

D. mightn’t have been

Question 12:__________, he would have been able to pass the exam.

A. If he studied more B. Studying more

C. If he were studying more D. Had he studied more

Question 13: My parents will have celebrated 30 years of___________ by next week.

A. marry B. married C. marriageable D. marriage

Question 14: Poor management drove my father’s company to____________ of collapse.

A. the foot B. the rim C. the brink D. the ring

Question 15: The weather is__________ nice that the children want to stay outside all day.

A. very B. too C. so D. enough

Question 16: The singer was_________ on the piano by her sister.

A. discarded B. accompanied C. performed D. played

Question 17: I am sorry I have no time at present to_______ detail of our plan.

A. bring in B. take into C. go into D. come in

Question 18: He did not share his secrets with other people, but he__________ in her.

A. confessed B. concealed C. confided D. consented

Question 19: We bought some___________ glasses.

A. German lovely old B. old lovely German C. lovely old German D. German old lovely

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: – Long: “Do you fancy going to the movie this evening?”

– Hoa: “________”

A. Not so bad. And you?

B. I’m sorry. I don’t know that.

C. Not at all. Go ahead!

D. That would be nice!

Question 21: – Peter: “Why don’t you have some chicken soup first?”

– John: “_____________”

A. Of course not. B. It’s so cold. C. Not for me, thank you. D. I am full.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The air is naturally contaminated by foreign matter such as plant pollens and dust.

A. filled B. concentrated C. polluted D. occupied

Question 23: Shake a leg or you will miss the train.

A. Hurry up B. Slow down C. Watch out D. Put down

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: People sometimes choose partners who compensate for their own shortcomings.

A. strengths B. disadvantages C. weaknesses D. benefits

Question 25: You should pat yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation exam.

A. praise yourself B. criticize yourself C. check up your back D. wear a backpack

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: People know that English is an international language.

A. English is known to be an international language.

B. It is known English an international language.

C. It is known that English to be an international language.

D. English known is an international language.

Question 27: The last time I saw her was three years ago.

A. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her again.

B. I have not seen her for three years.

C. I have often seen her for the last three years.

D. About three years ago, I used to meet her.

Question 28: The coffee was not strong, so it didn’t keep us awake.

A. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.

B. The coffee was very strong, but it couldn’t keep us awake.

C. We are kept awake because the coffee was strong.

D. The coffee was so hot that it didn’t keep us awake.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: The boy is called Duncan. He sits next to me in class.

A. The boy whose is called Duncan sits next to me in class.

B. The boy who sits next to me in class is called Duncan.

C. The boy whom sits next to me in class is called Duncan.

D. The boy to whom he sits next is called Duncan.

Question 30: Mike wrote the text. He selected the illustration as well.

A. If Mike had written the text, he would have selected the illustration.

B. In order to select the illustration, Mike had to write the text.

C. Mike not only wrote the text but also selected the illustration.

D. The text Mike wrote was not as good as the illustration he selected.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, (31) she worked most of her life.

Carson’s first book, “Under the Sea Wind”, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews. In that year she also published “The Sea around us”, which (32) a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface. Her imagery and language had a (33) quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field.

In 1962, Carson published “Silent Spring”, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much (34) was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were faulty. (35) , her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.

(Source: TOEFL Reading)

Question 31: A. where B. that C. whom D. which

Question 32: A. provided B. made C. produced D. put

Question 33: A. poetic B. poetry C. poet D. poem

Question 34: A. good B. harm C. wrong D. right

Question 35: A. However B. Moreover C. Although D. Therefore

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The period from the late 1930s to the middle 1940s is known as the Golden Age of comic books. The modern comic book came about in the early 1930s in the United States as a giveaway premium to promote the sales of a whole range of household products such as cereal and cleansers. The comic books, which were printed in bright colors to attract the attention of potential customers, proved so popular that some publishers decided to produce comic books that would come out on a monthly basis and would sell for a dime each. Though comic strips had been reproduced in publications prior to this time, the Famous Funnies comic book, which was started in 1934, marked the first occasion that a serialized book of comics was attempted.

Early comic books reprinted already existing comic strips and comics based on known characters; however, publishers soon began introducing original characters developed specially for comic books. Superman was introduced in Action Comics in 1938, and Batman was introduced a year later. The tremendous success of these superhero comic books led to the development of numerous comic books on a variety of topics, though superhero comic books predominated. Astonishingly, by 1945 approximately 160 different comic books were being published in the United States each month, and 90 percent of U.S children were said to read comic books on a regular basis.

(Source: Preparation Course for the Toefl Test)

Question 36: What is the main focus of this passage?

A. The history of comic books B. How to produce comic books
C. Batman D. Superhero comics

Question 37: The word “premium” is closest in meaning to .

A. introduction B. preparation C. publication D. importance

Question 38: The word “potential” is closest in meaning to .

A. continuing B. developing C. able D. possible

Question 39: The word “which” in paragraph 1 refers to .

A. comic trips B. the Famous Funnies C. serialized book of comics D. publications

Question 40: According to paragraph 2, Batman was introduced in _ _.

A. 1938 B. 1939 C. 1940 D. 1945

Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

A. The modern comic book came about in the early 1930s in the United States.
B. The comic books were printed in bright colors.
C. Superman was introduced in Action Comics in 1938.
D. The Famous Funnies comic book was the first comic strips.

Question 42: Which of the following was published after Action Comics?

A. the Famous Funnies B. Superman C. Superhero D. Batman

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Life on Earth is in the throes of a new wave of mass extinction, unlike anything since the demise of the dinosaurs. In the last 500 years, 844 species are known to have died out, and up to 16,000 others are now known to be threatened. Conservationists argue that humans have an ethical obligation to protect other species. Diversity and natural beauty are highly prized by mankind, and that biodiversity is a vital resource: we rely on ecosystems to provide food, oxygen and natural resources, recycle waste and fertilize soil for agriculture. The total value of services provided to man by nature has been estimated at $33 trillion annually. Plants and animals are also an essential source of new foods and medicines worldwide. Preserving species could help protect us from disease.

Natural disasters and processes were behind the five major mass extinctions in geological history, but the current “sixth extinction” is being caused by the success of one species- humans. The six billion (and counting) people crowding the Earth, are driving out biodiversity in a variety of ways. Humans began to destroy ecosystems a major way about 10,000 years ago with the development of agriculture.

But within the last 100,000 years, the hunting and burning practices of people, along with climate change, drove many large mammals to extinction. However, the most common reason for extinction is habitat loss. Ecosystems from wetlands to prairies and rain forests to coral reefs are being cleared or degraded for crops, cattle, roads and development. Even fragmenting habitats with roads or dams can make them more vulnerable.

(Source: Succeed in Cambridge CAE 10 Practice Tests)

Question 43: What is the main focus of this passage?

A. Our endangered wildlife B. Life on Earth
C. Biodiversity D. Ecosystem

Question 44: The word “died out” in paragrpah 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. destroyed B. used up C. been extinct D. polluted

Question 45: The word “Preserving” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. Destroying B. Conserving C. Continuing D. Keeping

Question 46: According to the passage, the “sixth extinction” is being caused by .

A. roads and dams B. climate change C. development D. human beings

Question 47: According to the reading passage, what is the main reason for extinction?

A. burning B. climate change C. habitat loss D. hunting

Question 48: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to .

A. habitats B. rainforests C. roads or dams D. mammals

Question 49: The following are true EXCEPT .

A. Within the last 100,000 years, the hunting and burning practices of people, along with climate change, drove many large mammals to extinction

B. In the last 500 years, 844 species are known to have died out

C. In the last 500 years, up to 16,000 species are now known to be threatened

D. Humans began to destroy ecosystems a major way about 100,000 years ago with the development of agriculture

Question 50: Why do plants and animals play an essential part in our life?

A. Because they provide us dinosaurs. B. Because they provide us food and medicine.
C. Because they are threatened. D. Because they are natural beauty.

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