Đề thi vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh chuyên tỉnh Bình Dương năm học 2017 – 2018 (Có đáp án)

Đề thi vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh tỉnh Bình Dương năm học 2017 – 2018 dành riêng cho hệ chuyên, với thời gian làm bài 120 phút. Đề thi đi kèm cả đáp án giúp các em so sánh với kết quả bài thi của mình thuận tiện hơn. Mời các em cùng theo dõi nội dung chi tiết dưới đây:

Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh Sở GD&ĐT tỉnh Hải Dương năm học 2017 – 2018

Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh TP Hồ Chí Minh năm học 2017 – 2018 (Có đáp án)

Đề thi vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh chuyên tỉnh Bình Dương năm học 2017 – 2018

l. Listening. (2 points)

Questions 1-5: Listen to Jack and Mark talking about a new sports center. Which sport can they do each day at the center? Write a letter A -H next to each day. You will hear the conversation twice.

Question 6-10. Listen to a woman asking Michael about what to do in three situations. Fill in each blank withONE suitable word. You will hear the conversation twice.

II. Communication. (1 point)

Choose the statements (A-H) to complete the conversation between Lily and the receptionist.

III. Phonetics. (0.4 points.)

Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

16. A. missed B. canned C. cracked D. dripped

17. A. treasure B. weather C. earthquake D. healthy

Choose the word which differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

18. A. invent B. reduce C. pollute D. surface

19. A. prohibit B. compliment C. minimize D. innovate

IV. Lexico-Grammar. (1.6 pts)

Choose the best option A, B, C, or D.

20. Donald gets up at six every morning. Then he……to his office at seven-thirty.

A. goes B. went C. is going D. has gone

21. At this time last year. Mr. and Mrs. Smith’s son……for WHO.

A. have worked B. has worked C. was working D. were working

22. I think you should buy a Moto 360 smartwatch, ……is the prettiest watch at present.

A. who B. that C. which D. whose

23. You have free time, ……?

A. have you B. haven’t you C. do you D. don’t you

24. Should you be late, the train……

A. won’t wait B. don’t wait C. didn’t wait D. not wait

25. Taylor Swift was born……December 13, 1989.

A. on B. in C. at D. since

26. They all wish the Second World War……

A. didn’t happen B. hadn’t happened C. wouldn’t happen D. shouldn’t happen

27. She was walking home when the wind……her hat off.

A. blows B. blew C. was blown D. has blown

28. Of the two girls, Helen and Alice, Helen is the……

A. funny B. funnier C. most funny D. funniest

29. He has……given up playing on-line games.

A. success B. succeeded C. successful D. successfully

30. My sister can play the…..very well.

A. yoga B. tennis C. judo D. violin

31. Robots are used……dangerous jobs in places where people cannot safely work.

A. do B. to do C. doing D. to doing

32. She was wearing…….dress.

A. a unique white wedding striped silk B. a unique white silk striped wedding

C. a unique white striped silk wedding D. a unique white wedding silk striped

33. Some scientists have predicted that healthy adults and children may one day take drugs to improve their intelligence. The synonym of ‘predicted‘ is……

A. believed B. thought C. forecasted D. imagined

34. Please decrease the volume. I’m doing my homework. The synonym of ‘decrease’ is……

A. turn up B. turn down C. turn on D. turn off

35. Find the mistake in one of the four underlined parts of this sentence.

The narrow road to our house needs to be widening soon.

A. The B. to C. needs D. be widening

VI. Reading. (2.5 points)

Read the passage below carefully and fill in each blank with the best option, A, B, C, or D.

Earth Day is the largest, most widely celebrated international environmental event. Celebrating Earth Day can inspire awareness of and appreciation for the earth’s environment. Earth Day was first celebrated in April, 1970 in (36)…..when 20 million people and thousands of local schools and communities participated. Earth Day’s success helped influence the government to create stronger laws to (37)…..the environment. Taking care of the earth may sound (38)….., but there are many simple steps that each of us can take to save energy and reduce our impact on the planet. The earths (39)…..us with all good gifts: food, water, minerals, fresh air, fire, beauty. When we remember this, we are more careful about our attitudes and actions. We choose food that is healthful for us and environmentally friendly for the earth. We pick up (40)…..to show our respect for our surroundings.

36. A. United States B. a United States C. an United States D. the United States

37. A. impress B. protect C. worship D. distinguish

38. A. complicated B. considerate C. compulsory D. environmental

39. A. provide B. help C. gives D. supplies

40. A. evidence B. refreshment C. litter D. deforestation

Read the passage below carefully and fill in each blank with the best option, A, B, C, or D.

The organisation City Of Trees have shown the public a plan to plant three million trees in Greater Manchester over the next quarter of a century, a plan that aims to use the power of trees to refresh and redevelop the area. Of course planting more trees in built up urban areas has not only beauty effects but also other good consequences. As well as reducing stress, encouraging people to spend more time in shopping areas and improving air quality, a lot of trees can actually reduce flooding in urban areas.

Tony Hothersall, the director of City Of Trees, explained that the scheme had three main aims. He said: “One is to plant three million trees which means a tree for every man, woman and child in the next quarter of a century. Next, we focus on managing existing woodlands because there is no point in planting new woodlands if you can’t manage what you’ve got already. Finally, we want to interest people a lot more in their natural environment – in planting trees, in managing areas, in understanding more about the benefits that trees and woodlands bring to our society. They can do great things in terms of air pollution and can help to protect us from noise pollution. What is really important is that it is about the right tree in the right place.” And the plan is off to a storming start. Since its launch in 2015, about one hundred thousand trees have been planted around Greta Manchester.

(Adapted from http://www.bbc.com)

Questions 41 to 44. Match the following synonyms from the article. Example 0. G.

0. areas 41. effects 43. aims 44. woodlands 45. benefits

A. advantages B. signals C. disaters D. forests E. grasslands

F. purposes G. regions H. results I. trees J. wetlands

45. According to the passage, what is NOT the benefit of trees?

A. Lowering stress levels B. Bettering air quality C. Heating shopping areas D. Refreshing the area

46. What do trees help to decrease?

A. Floods B. Storms C. Beauty D. Woodlands

47. According to Tony Hothersall, what will the project attract people to?

A. City of Trees B. Their society C. Urban areas D. Natural environment

48. What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?

A. trees B. benefits C. areas D. people

49. When will they complete planting 3,000,000 trees?

A. In 2015 B. 2030 C. 2040 D. In 2115

50. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

A. Benefits of trees and woodlands B. Scheme to grow a city of trees

C. The biggest area launch in 2015 D. Billions of trees in Manchester

Read the passage below carefully and fill in each blank with the best option, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, or J.

German sportwear bans Adidas is helping to clean up the earth’s oceans by using the waste floating around the world to make shoes. The sportwear company has teamed up with Parley for the Oceans, an environmental group that raises awareness of pollution in the ocean, to produce pairs of trainers made from recycled ocean waste. Only 7,000 pairs of the UltraBOOST Uncaged Parley were made in 2016, but the company says it plans to make one million pairs of shoes using Parley Ocean Plastic in 2017. “Nobody can save the oceans alone. Each of us can play a role in the solution. We are extremely proud that Adidas is joining us in this mission to show that it is possible to turn ocean plastic into something cool,’ said Cyrill Gutsch, the founder of Parley for the Oceans.

Priced at €2,000, the shoes contain 11 plastic bottles. The upper part of the shoe is made from recycled polyester and waste plastic taken from the waters around the Mandives, and most of the rest of the trainer was made from recycled material.

Plastic in the world’s odeans has become am increasing problem in recent years. A report in January said oceans would contain more plastic than fish by 2050 unless the world stopped rubbish leaking into the seas. According to UNESCO, in 2006, there were 30,000 pieces of floating plastic for every squre kilometre of oceans. Plastic kills over a million seabirds and 100,000 marine animals evey year.

Questions 51-54. Match the following synonyms from the article.

A. atmosphere B. garbage C. instructor D. kindness E. part

F. reduction G. shoe H. understanding I. variety J. wastebasket

55. How many pairs of trainers that use Parley Ocean Plastic will be made this year?

A. 7, 000 B. 30,000 C. 100,000 D. 1,000,000

56. What is the UltraBOOST Uncaged Parley made from?

A. Adidas and Parley for the Oceans B. Recycled material and plastic

C. The waters around the Mandives D. Floating seabirds and marine animals

57. According to Cyrill Gutsch, it is possible to turn ocean plastic into…..

A. Something wet B. Something cold C. Something calm D. Something great

58. Where is floating plastic found?

A. On the surface of waters B. In UltraBOOST Uncaged

C. At the bottom of the ocean D. Only in Mandives’s waters

59. According to the passage, how many seabirds are killed every year?

A. About 7, 000 B. About 30,000 C. About 100,000 D. About 1,000,000

60. Why are the trainers made from floating ocean rubbish?

A. To raise pollution in the waters B. To decrease plastic in the ocean

C. To recycle rubbish in the Mandives D. To make something cool to sell

VI. Writing.

61. Health is more important than money. _ Money………………………………………….

62. They said: “Why don’t we build a library in our village?” _ They suggested building………………….

63. The last time she rode a bike was three years ago. _ She hasn’t……………………………………..

64. It took Michael thirty minutes to take his dog for a walk. _ Michael spent half………………………….

65. Lindsey regretted telling them her secret. _ Lindsey wishes she…………………………

Paragraph writing. (2pts)

Would you like to live in the big city or in the countryside? Write a paragraph (from 80-120 words) about the place you would like to live in and some benefits of living in that place.

Đáp án đề thi vào 10 môn Tiếng Anh

II

11. B 12. A 13. H 14. C 15. D

III.

16. B 17. C 18. D 19. A

IV.

20. A 21. C 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. B

28. B 29. D 30. D 31. B 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. D

V.

36. D 41. H 46. A 51. H 56. B

37. B 42. F 47. D 52. C 57. D

38. A 43. 1 48. A 53. E 58. A

39. D 44. A 49. C 54. B 59. D

40. C 45. C 50. B 55. D 60. B

VI.

61. Money isn’t so important as health.

62. They suggest building a library in their village.

63. She hasn’t ridden a bike for three years.

64. Michael spent half an hour taking his dog for a walk.

65. Lindsey wishes she had not told them her secret.

WRITING

A Suggested Writing

If I were asked whether I would like to live in the city or in the countryside, my answer would definitely be in the countryside. Living in the countryside brings me a lot of benefits. First, in the countryside, there is lots of fresh air, so people can enjoy a happy life without clean and fresh air. Second, in the countryside, there is not so much traffic as in the city, so people will not suffer from too much noise and they can enjoy a peaceful, quiet and safe life. Last but not least, people in the countryside are very friendly and easy-going. They always smile and give cheerful greetings when they meet their acquaintances and even visitors. [118 words]